HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A 19-year-old female client with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa wants to help serve dinner trays to other clients on a psychiatric unit. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client's self-motivation by asking her to assist with other activities.
- B. Provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities.
- C. Allow the client to serve dinner trays to other clients but monitor closely for any signs of distress.
- D. Explain to the client that she needs to focus on her own recovery and cannot participate in serving dinner trays.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with anorexia should not be allowed to plan or prepare food for unit activities, as this can reinforce their perception of self-control. Allowing the client to serve dinner trays (C) may trigger distress or unhealthy behaviors. Therefore, it is best to provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities (B). Encouraging the client to assist with other activities (A) may inadvertently reinforce negative behaviors related to food. Explaining to the client that she cannot participate in serving dinner trays (D) without offering an alternative does not address the client's desire to help and may lead to feelings of rejection.
2. A client is admitted to a medical nursing unit with a diagnosis of acute blindness. Many tests are performed, and there seems to be no organic reason why this client cannot see. The client became blind after witnessing a hit-and-run car accident, when a family of three was killed. A LPN/LVN suspects that the client may be experiencing a:
- A. Psychosis
- B. Repression
- C. Conversion Disorder
- D. Dissociative Disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's acute blindness without any organic cause following a traumatic event indicates a case of Conversion Disorder. Conversion Disorder involves the manifestation of physical symptoms due to psychological stressors. Psychosis (choice A) involves a loss of contact with reality, which is not evident here. Repression (choice B) is a defense mechanism that involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts. Dissociative Disorder (choice D) involves disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, or perception, which is not the primary issue in this case.
3. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the voices he hears are saying, 'You must kill yourself.' To assist the client in coping with these thoughts, which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Tell yourself that the voices are unreasonable.'
- B. Exercise when you hear the voices.'
- C. Talk to someone when you hear the voices.'
- D. The voices aren't real, so ignore them.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should teach the client to use self-talk to disprove the voices. Although exercising may be helpful, the client's concrete thinking may make it difficult to understand this suggestion. Clients with schizophrenia have difficulty initiating interaction with others. Auditory hallucinations are often relentless, so it is difficult to ignore them.
4. A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:
- A. Suggesting a reduction of medication
- B. Allowing increased 'in-room' activities
- C. Increasing the level of suicide precautions
- D. Allowing the client off-unit privileges as needed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sudden improvement in mood and declaring being cured can be warning signs of a decision to attempt suicide. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to increase the level of suicide precautions to ensure the safety of the client. This can involve closer monitoring and restriction of items that could be harmful. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the potential risk of suicide that may be present with the sudden change in behavior.
5. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?
- A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
- B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
- C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
- D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.
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