HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. While caring for a four-year-old female patient who was severely burned in a house fire, how would you determine the extent of this child's burns?
- A. By using the Lund and Browder chart
- B. By using the Rule of Nines
- C. By using the Rule of Tens
- D. By using the Parkland Formula
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: By using the Lund and Browder chart. The Lund and Browder chart is specifically designed to assess the extent of burns in children accurately, taking into account the variation in body proportions as children grow. This method provides a more precise estimation of the total body surface area affected by burns in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The Rule of Nines is more suitable for adults, not children. The Rule of Tens is not a standard method for assessing burn extent, and the Parkland Formula is used to calculate fluid resuscitation requirements in burn patients, not to determine the extent of burns.
2. When developing an educational program for staff regarding a new intravenous pump, what is the correct sequence of actions for a nurse to take?
- A. Develop learning objectives for the program
- B. Identify what skills to teach the staff members
- C. Conduct program evaluation with staff members
- D. Schedule several sessions of the program
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence of actions when developing an educational program for staff regarding a new intravenous pump is to first identify what skills to teach the staff members. This step is essential as it sets the foundation for the learning objectives to be developed next. Once the learning objectives are established, scheduling several sessions of the program can be planned accordingly. Finally, after the program has been conducted, program evaluation with staff members should take place to assess the effectiveness of the educational program. Therefore, options A, C, and D are out of sequence, making them incorrect choices.
3. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?
- A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
- B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
- C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
- D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.
4. A nurse enters a client room to witness an informed consent for a gastroscopy. The client states he does not understand the procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Educate the client about the risks of refusing medications
- B. Complete an incident report
- C. Answer the client's question concerning the procedure
- D. Inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure. This ensures that the client fully understands the gastroscopy procedure before giving consent. Choice A is incorrect as the client's issue is not about refusing medications. Choice B is irrelevant as there is no incident to report. Choice C could be misleading as the nurse should not be providing information about the procedure but rather ensuring that the client gets the necessary clarification from the provider.
5. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.
- A. The fourth cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve
- B. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
- C. The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve
- D. The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve, which controls the muscles of the tongue. The other choices are incorrect because the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, the olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell, and there are only twelve cranial nerves, so there is no thirteenth cranial nerve.
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