HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. While caring for a four-year-old female patient who was severely burned in a house fire, how would you determine the extent of this child's burns?
- A. By using the Lund and Browder chart
- B. By using the Rule of Nines
- C. By using the Rule of Tens
- D. By using the Parkland Formula
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: By using the Lund and Browder chart. The Lund and Browder chart is specifically designed to assess the extent of burns in children accurately, taking into account the variation in body proportions as children grow. This method provides a more precise estimation of the total body surface area affected by burns in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The Rule of Nines is more suitable for adults, not children. The Rule of Tens is not a standard method for assessing burn extent, and the Parkland Formula is used to calculate fluid resuscitation requirements in burn patients, not to determine the extent of burns.
2. Why is patient confidentiality significant in healthcare?
- A. Sharing patient information freely
- B. Protecting patient privacy
- C. Ignoring patient consent
- D. Limiting patient access to their own records
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patient confidentiality is significant in healthcare because it involves protecting patient privacy. Maintaining confidentiality ensures that patients feel safe and secure when sharing sensitive information with healthcare providers. Choice A is incorrect because sharing patient information freely would violate confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect because ignoring patient consent goes against ethical principles. Choice D is incorrect because limiting patient access to their own records does not relate directly to the concept of patient confidentiality.
3. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage VI
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.
4. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unconscious following a motor-vehicle crash. The client requires immediate surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Transport the client to the operating room without verifying informed consent
- B. Ask the anesthesiologist to sign the consent
- C. Obtain telephone consent from the facility administrator before the surgery
- D. Delay the surgery until the nurse can obtain informed consent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, implied consent applies. Implied consent allows healthcare providers, including nurses, to proceed with necessary treatment or surgery without formally verifying informed consent. Choice A is correct because the priority in this scenario is to ensure the client receives timely medical intervention to address life-threatening conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in emergencies, waiting to obtain formal consent can delay critical treatment, risking the client's health and well-being.
5. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?
- A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
- B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
- C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
- D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.
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