Nursing Elites

1. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

2. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

3. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

• A. Assist the client with a hot bath
• B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
• C. Face the client directly when speaking
• D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

4. The practical nurse is caring for a client whose urine drug screen is positive for cocaine. Which behavior is this client likely to exhibit during cocaine withdrawal?

• A. Elevated energy level
• B. Euphoria
• C. High self-esteem
• D. Powerful craving for more

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Powerful craving for more. During cocaine withdrawal, individuals often experience intense cravings for the drug, along with symptoms such as fatigue, depression, and anxiety. These cravings can be overpowering and lead to a strong desire to seek out more cocaine to alleviate the withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as elevated energy level, euphoria, and high self-esteem are more associated with the effects of cocaine rather than withdrawal symptoms. Withdrawal from cocaine is characterized by the opposite, such as fatigue, low mood, and intense cravings.

5. Which of the following areas does the Patient’s Bill of Rights cover?

• A. Information disclosure
• B. Choice of providers
• C. Choice of plans
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Patient’s Bill of Rights encompasses various areas to protect patients' rights. These include ensuring information disclosure, allowing patients to choose their healthcare providers, and giving them options to select plans that suit their needs. Therefore, all the choices - information disclosure, choice of providers, and choice of plans - are covered under the Patient’s Bill of Rights. The option 'Best payment options' is not relevant to the areas typically addressed by the Patient’s Bill of Rights.

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