Nursing Elites

1. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Gastric residual volumes
• C. Bowel sounds
• D. Urinary and stool output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

2. A client who had an abdominal hysterectomy is experiencing minimal urine output despite adequate fluid intake. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client's bladder for distension.
• B. The IV catheter insertion site.
• C. The patency of the urinary catheter.
• D. The client's vital signs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the patency of the urinary catheter is crucial in this situation. A blocked catheter could be a common cause of decreased urine output following surgery. While checking the IV catheter insertion site (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority in this case. Examining the client's bladder for distension (Choice A) is relevant, but assessing the patency of the catheter takes precedence in resolving the issue of decreased urine output. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is a routine nursing task but not the priority when dealing with decreased urine output post-surgery.

3. During a blood transfusion, which sign or symptom should prompt the healthcare provider to immediately stop the transfusion?

• A. Slight increase in blood pressure
• B. Elevated temperature and chills
• C. Mild nausea
• D. Slight headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated temperature and chills. These symptoms are indicative of a transfusion reaction, which can be severe and life-threatening. It is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Elevated temperature and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a possible febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Choice A, a slight increase in blood pressure, is not typically a reason to stop a transfusion unless it is a significant sudden increase. Mild nausea (Choice C) and a slight headache (Choice D) are common side effects of blood transfusions and are not primary indicators of a transfusion reaction that require immediate cessation of the transfusion.

4. Which type of cell is responsible for producing antibodies in the immune system?

• A. B lymphocytes
• B. T lymphocytes
• C. Macrophages
• D. Neutrophils

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: B lymphocytes. B lymphocytes (B cells) are a crucial part of the adaptive immune system. They produce antibodies, which are proteins that specifically target and neutralize pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. T lymphocytes (choice B) are involved in cell-mediated immunity rather than antibody production. Macrophages (choice C) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens but do not produce antibodies. Neutrophils (choice D) are a type of white blood cell that primarily function in the innate immune response by phagocytosing pathogens.

5. The PN reviews a client's medication history and learns that the client takes an anticoagulant and has recently started taking phenytoin. Which instruction should the PN provide when assigning the client's morning care to a UAP?

• A. Measure the temperature every 4 hours
• B. Elevate both feet on two pillows
• C. Initiate hourly turning schedule
• D. Protect skin from injury and bruising

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Protect skin from injury and bruising. Phenytoin and anticoagulants both increase the risk of bleeding. Protecting the skin from injury and bruising is critical to prevent complications, making it important to instruct the UAP accordingly. Measuring the temperature every 4 hours (Choice A) may not be directly related to the client's medications. Elevating both feet on two pillows (Choice B) is more relevant for issues like edema. Initiating an hourly turning schedule (Choice C) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, but in this case, the priority is to prevent bleeding due to the medications.

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