HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. While performing an inspection of a client's fingernails, the PN observes a suspected abnormality of the nail's shape and character. Which finding should the PN document?
- A. Clubbed nails
- B. Splinter hemorrhages
- C. Longitudinal ridges
- D. Koilonychia or spoon nails
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clubbed nails. Clubbed nails are a significant finding often associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. The presence of clubbed nails should be documented for further evaluation. Splinter hemorrhages (Choice B) are tiny areas of bleeding under the nails and are associated with conditions like endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (Choice C) are common and often a normal finding in older adults. Koilonychia or spoon nails (Choice D) refer to nails that are concave or scooped out, often seen in conditions like iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. These conditions are not typically associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease, making them less likely findings in this situation.
2. The client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard is exhibiting a sign of disturbed thought processes. Which nursing problem should the nurse document in the medical record?
- A. Altered sensory perception
- B. Impaired social interaction
- C. Risk for self-directed violence
- D. Disturbed thought processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of words, is a sign of disturbed thought processes commonly seen in clients with schizophrenia. It reflects a disorganization in thinking rather than a sensory perception issue (Choice A). Impaired social interaction (Choice B) refers to difficulties in relating to others, which is not the primary concern in echolalia. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) focuses on potential harm to self, which is separate from the repetitive behavior of echolalia.
3. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the nurse observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Loosen the dressing of the fistula
- B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
- C. Document that the fistula is intact
- D. Apply gentle pressure over the site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document that the fistula is intact. The palpable buzzing sensation (known as a thrill) over the AV fistula indicates proper functioning. It is essential for the nurse to document this finding to ensure ongoing monitoring of the fistula's status. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication to loosen the dressing. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not associated with the palpable buzzing sensation of a thrill. Choice D is incorrect as applying pressure over the site is not necessary for this situation.
4. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?
- A. A 30-year-old male who is able to walk into the hospital on his own but has numerous lacerations on the chest and face
- B. A 45-year-old male who was brought in on a stretcher, has been assessed as having respiration and circulation within normal limits, and can follow simple commands
- C. A 50-year-old woman who can walk but has a broken arm and numerous lacerations
- D. A 19-year-old man who has numerous lacerations all over the body and whose respiration exceeds 30 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.
5. A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client's bowel sounds.
- B. The client's fluid intake.
- C. The client's pain level.
- D. The client's surgical incision.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.
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