Nursing Elites

1. While performing an inspection of a client's fingernails, the PN observes a suspected abnormality of the nail's shape and character. Which finding should the PN document?

• A. Clubbed nails
• B. Splinter hemorrhages
• C. Longitudinal ridges
• D. Koilonychia or spoon nails

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clubbed nails. Clubbed nails are a significant finding often associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. The presence of clubbed nails should be documented for further evaluation. Splinter hemorrhages (Choice B) are tiny areas of bleeding under the nails and are associated with conditions like endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (Choice C) are common and often a normal finding in older adults. Koilonychia or spoon nails (Choice D) refer to nails that are concave or scooped out, often seen in conditions like iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. These conditions are not typically associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease, making them less likely findings in this situation.

2. A nurse is assisting in the admission of a young adult female Korean exchange student with acute abdominal pain. When asked about her sexual activity, she looks away. What should the nurse do?

• A. Omit this question from the assessment form
• B. Ask her if she would like an interpreter present to assist with communication
• C. Reword the question to ensure the client's understanding
• D. Watch the client's response when asked a different question

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing the client's response to a different question can help gauge her comfort level and understanding, which is essential in culturally sensitive care. By watching her response to a different question, the nurse can assess if the discomfort is related to the specific question or a broader issue. Omitting the question may result in missing crucial information. Asking about an interpreter assumes that the language barrier is the only issue, which may not be the case. Rewording the question may not address the underlying discomfort and could still lead to misinterpretation.

3. A registered nurse is preparing to hang the first bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution. The client has a central line, and this is the first bag he will receive. Which of the following is the most essential piece of equipment to obtain prior to hanging the bag?

• A. Blood glucose meter
• B. Noninvasive blood pressure monitor
• C. Electronic infusion pump
• D. Urine test strips

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An electronic infusion pump is essential for administering TPN to ensure accurate delivery and avoid complications such as fluid overload or improper nutrient delivery. The pump helps regulate the flow rate precisely, which is crucial when infusing TPN. Monitoring the client's blood glucose is important but not immediately necessary before hanging the TPN bag. A noninvasive blood pressure monitor is not directly related to administering TPN and is not the most essential equipment needed for this procedure. Urine test strips are not required for administering TPN via a central line and are not essential equipment for this specific task.

4. The nurse is teaching a pregnant client how to distinguish prelabor contractions from true labor contractions. Which statement about prelabor contractions is accurate?

• A. They are irregular
• B. They are usually felt in the abdomen
• C. They start in the back and radiate to the abdomen
• D. They become more intense during walking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement about prelabor contractions (Braxton Hicks contractions) is that they are usually felt in the abdomen. They are irregular in nature and do not intensify with movement. Choice A is incorrect because prelabor contractions are irregular, not regular. Choice C is incorrect as prelabor contractions do not start in the back and radiate to the abdomen. Choice D is incorrect as prelabor contractions do not become more intense during walking.

5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

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