Nursing Elites

1. A client post-lobectomy is placed on mechanical ventilation. The nurse notices the client is fighting the ventilator. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the sedation as prescribed.
• B. Manually ventilate the client using an ambu bag.
• C. Check the ventilator settings and alarms.
• D. Suction the client’s airway.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client is fighting the ventilator is to check the ventilator settings and alarms. This step is crucial to ensure that the ventilator is functioning correctly and providing the necessary support to the client. Increasing sedation (Choice A) should only be considered after confirming that the ventilator settings are appropriate. While manually ventilating the client (Choice B) may be required in some cases, it is not the initial action to take. Suctioning the client's airway (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation, where the primary concern is addressing the client's struggle with the ventilator.

2. What is the most appropriate nursing action when a patient on anticoagulant therapy develops sudden, severe back pain?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Apply a cold compress to the back
• C. Assess for signs of internal bleeding
• D. Reposition the patient for comfort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient on anticoagulant therapy experiences sudden, severe back pain, the priority nursing action is to assess for signs of internal bleeding. Severe back pain in this context could be indicative of internal bleeding, such as a retroperitoneal bleed, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Administering pain medication or applying a cold compress may mask or delay the identification of a potentially life-threatening situation. Repositioning the patient for comfort is not the priority when internal bleeding needs to be ruled out.

3. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. Down syndrome
• D. Sickle cell anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

4. An older male client with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to an extended care facility. Which intervention should the PN include in the client's nursing care plan?

• A. Plan to have the same nursing staff provide care for the client whenever possible
• B. Describe the activities available to residents and encourage him to choose the ones he prefers
• C. Encourage the client to remain on the unit for three weeks until he is oriented to his new surroundings
• D. Introduce the client to the nursing staff and other residents as soon as possible

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease in an extended care facility is to plan to have the same nursing staff provide care whenever possible. Consistency in caregivers helps reduce confusion and anxiety in clients with Alzheimer’s disease, promoting a stable and supportive environment for the client. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on activities rather than the consistency of caregivers. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests isolating the client, which can lead to increased confusion and distress. Choice D is incorrect as introducing the client to new people immediately can be overwhelming and may exacerbate their symptoms.

5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

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