HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. A client tells the PN that she has a family history of cancer and has increased the amount of dairy products in her diet to reduce her risk of getting cancer. How should the PN respond?
- A. Encourage the client to get plenty of exercise in addition to the dietary change
- B. Provide written information about the seven warning signs of cancer
- C. Remind the client to ensure that the dairy products are fortified with Vitamin D
- D. Suggest that an increase in fruits and vegetables is more beneficial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Increasing fruits and vegetables in the diet is more beneficial in reducing cancer risk due to their high levels of antioxidants and fiber, which help protect against cancer. While exercise is important for overall health, in this context, focusing on fruits and vegetables is more relevant to reducing cancer risk than exercise alone. Providing information about cancer warning signs is not directly addressing the client's dietary choice. While Vitamin D is essential for various health aspects, the primary focus here should be on a diet rich in fruits and vegetables for cancer risk reduction.
2. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
3. When preparing a sterile field for a procedure, which action should the nurse take to maintain sterility?
- A. Place sterile items around the sterile field
- B. Keep hands below waist level to avoid contamination
- C. Open the sterile package away from the body
- D. Avoid reaching over the sterile field
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To maintain sterility when preparing a sterile field, it is essential to avoid reaching over the sterile field. This action can introduce contaminants from the nurse's clothing or unsterile areas, compromising the sterility of the field. Placing sterile items around the sterile field (choice A) is incorrect as it may increase the risk of contamination by extending the area where non-sterile items may come in contact. Keeping hands below waist level (choice B) is also incorrect as it does not prevent contamination effectively. Opening the sterile package away from the body (choice C) is incorrect since it exposes the contents to the nurse's body, which is not sterile.
4. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to increase the risk of a medication error?
- A. Not using abbreviations for medications
- B. Errors in the calculation of medication dosages
- C. Barcoding medication orders
- D. Utilizing unit dose dispensers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Errors in the calculation of medication dosages are a significant risk factor for medication errors. When dosage calculations are incorrect, it can lead to administering the wrong amount of medication, posing serious harm to the patient. Avoiding abbreviations for medications, barcoding medication orders, and utilizing unit dose dispensers are all strategies aimed at reducing medication errors by enhancing accuracy and safety. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are practices that help decrease, rather than increase, the risk of medication errors.
5. You are caring for a patient who just gave birth to a 6 lb. 13 oz. baby boy. The infant gave out a lusty cry, had a pink coloration all over his body, had flexed arms and legs, cried when stimulated, and had a pulse rate of 94. What Apgar score would you expect for this baby?
- A. 10
- B. 8
- C. 7
- D. 9
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method used to quickly assess the health of newborns. In this scenario, the baby would receive 2 points for color, reflex irritability, and muscle tone, but only 1 point for a pulse rate of 94, resulting in an Apgar score of 9. An Apgar score of 9 indicates that the baby is in good health overall. Choice A (10) is incorrect because a pulse rate of 94 would only score 1 point. Choices B (8) and C (7) are incorrect as the given criteria would lead to a higher score, indicating the baby's good health.
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