HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. A client tells the PN that she has a family history of cancer and has increased the amount of dairy products in her diet to reduce her risk of getting cancer. How should the PN respond?
- A. Encourage the client to get plenty of exercise in addition to the dietary change
- B. Provide written information about the seven warning signs of cancer
- C. Remind the client to ensure that the dairy products are fortified with Vitamin D
- D. Suggest that an increase in fruits and vegetables is more beneficial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Increasing fruits and vegetables in the diet is more beneficial in reducing cancer risk due to their high levels of antioxidants and fiber, which help protect against cancer. While exercise is important for overall health, in this context, focusing on fruits and vegetables is more relevant to reducing cancer risk than exercise alone. Providing information about cancer warning signs is not directly addressing the client's dietary choice. While Vitamin D is essential for various health aspects, the primary focus here should be on a diet rich in fruits and vegetables for cancer risk reduction.
2. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
3. A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the nurse plan to include in the child's plan of care?
- A. Recommend parents bring favorite snacks
- B. Encourage ambulation daily to the playroom
- C. Measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours
- D. Offer a selection of fresh fruit for each meal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is crucial in managing glomerulonephritis, as hypertension is a common complication during the acute edematous phase. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the specific needs of a child with glomerulonephritis. Choice B is incorrect as excessive activity may not be suitable during the acute phase, as rest and monitoring are more important. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on monitoring vital signs rather than meal options.
4. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
5. The nurse enters a male client's room to administer routine morning medications, and the client is on the phone. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Ask another nurse to return with the medication when the client has hung up the phone
- B. Wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation, and observe the client taking the medication
- C. Return the medication to the client's drawer on the cart and document that the client refused the dose
- D. Leave the medication with the client and let him take it when he finishes the conversation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation and then observe the client taking the medication. This approach ensures that the client takes the medication as prescribed, promoting compliance and safety. Choice A is not ideal as it involves unnecessary delegation and may lead to confusion. Choice C is incorrect because assuming refusal without direct communication can compromise patient care. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the medication with the client unsupervised may result in non-compliance or potential errors.
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