Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.

2. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

3. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the PN thinks might have touched hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp table top
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the PN's waist level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.

4. A client who had a right total shoulder replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse emphasize to the client to prevent complications?

• A. Avoid lifting objects with the right arm until cleared by the surgeon.
• B. Perform shoulder exercises to regain strength.
• C. Use a sling at all times, even during sleep.
• D. Apply heat to the shoulder to reduce stiffness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid lifting objects with the right arm until cleared by the surgeon. After a total shoulder replacement, it is essential to protect the new joint to prevent dislocation or injury. Lifting heavy objects prematurely can lead to complications. While performing shoulder exercises is important for strength, they should be done as per the healthcare provider's instructions to avoid strain on the new joint. Using a sling at all times, as in choice C, is not necessary once the client has regained enough strength and mobility. Applying heat, as in choice D, may not be recommended post-surgery; cold therapy is often preferred to reduce swelling and pain.

5. The PN observes a UAP preparing to exit a client's room. The UAP's hands appear visibly soiled as the UAP uses a hand rub for 19 seconds to cleanse the hands. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Confirm that the UAP completed hand hygiene correctly
• B. Instruct the UAP to wash the hands for one minute
• C. Ask the UAP why the hands were so obviously soiled
• D. Advise the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When hands are visibly soiled, they should be washed with soap and water for at least 20 seconds. However, when using hand rub, it should be applied for at least 30 seconds to be effective. In this scenario, the UAP's hands were visibly soiled, indicating the need for thorough cleaning. Advising the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds is essential to ensure proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of spreading infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because confirming completion of hand hygiene, instructing to wash for one minute, or asking why the hands were soiled do not address the immediate need for proper hand hygiene in the given situation.

Similar Questions