HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Insulin deficiency
- B. Overhydration
- C. Excess carbohydrate intake
- D. Excess insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.
2. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?
- A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
- B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
- C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
- D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.
3. A client is 48 hours post-op from a bowel resection and has not had a bowel movement. The client is complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. What is the nurse’s best action?
- A. Administer a prescribed laxative.
- B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- C. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds is the best initial action in this situation. It helps the nurse assess bowel function before considering interventions like administering a laxative. Abdominal pain and bloating could be indicative of bowel motility issues, and auscultation can provide crucial information. Encouraging increased fluid intake can be beneficial in promoting bowel movement, but assessing bowel sounds is more immediate to evaluate the current status. Notifying the healthcare provider should be reserved for situations where immediate intervention is needed or if the condition worsens after assessment.
4. A client who had a right total shoulder replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse emphasize to the client to prevent complications?
- A. Avoid lifting objects with the right arm until cleared by the surgeon.
- B. Perform shoulder exercises to regain strength.
- C. Use a sling at all times, even during sleep.
- D. Apply heat to the shoulder to reduce stiffness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid lifting objects with the right arm until cleared by the surgeon. After a total shoulder replacement, it is essential to protect the new joint to prevent dislocation or injury. Lifting heavy objects prematurely can lead to complications. While performing shoulder exercises is important for strength, they should be done as per the healthcare provider's instructions to avoid strain on the new joint. Using a sling at all times, as in choice C, is not necessary once the client has regained enough strength and mobility. Applying heat, as in choice D, may not be recommended post-surgery; cold therapy is often preferred to reduce swelling and pain.
5. During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?
- A. Record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse
- B. Ask the family members to visit more often to stimulate the patient
- C. Motivate the client by offering favorite foods as a prize
- D. Withhold any medications that may cause side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.
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