Nursing Elites

1. A client post-thoracotomy is complaining of severe pain with deep breathing and coughing. What should the nurse encourage the client to do to manage the pain and prevent respiratory complications?

• A. Hold a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting).
• B. Take shallow breaths to avoid pain.
• C. Increase the dose of pain medication.
• D. Avoid deep breathing exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Splinting the chest with a pillow helps manage pain during deep breathing and coughing, which is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia after thoracic surgery. Holding a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting) supports the incision site and reduces the pain associated with deep breathing and coughing. Encouraging shallow breaths (Choice B) can lead to respiratory complications due to inadequate lung expansion. Increasing pain medication (Choice C) should be done based on healthcare provider orders and not solely for this situation. Avoiding deep breathing exercises (Choice D) can worsen respiratory function and increase the risk of complications.

2. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• B. To improve circulation in the legs.
• C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
• D. To alleviate post-operative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.

3. The nurse enters a male client's room to administer routine morning medications, and the client is on the phone. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Ask another nurse to return with the medication when the client has hung up the phone
• B. Wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation, and observe the client taking the medication
• C. Return the medication to the client's drawer on the cart and document that the client refused the dose
• D. Leave the medication with the client and let him take it when he finishes the conversation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation and then observe the client taking the medication. This approach ensures that the client takes the medication as prescribed, promoting compliance and safety. Choice A is not ideal as it involves unnecessary delegation and may lead to confusion. Choice C is incorrect because assuming refusal without direct communication can compromise patient care. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the medication with the client unsupervised may result in non-compliance or potential errors.

4. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate in the blood?

• A. Parathyroid hormone
• B. Insulin
• C. Cortisol
• D. Thyroxine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Parathyroid hormone is the correct answer. It regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and releasing calcium from bones. Insulin is involved in glucose metabolism, not calcium and phosphate regulation. Cortisol is a stress hormone and is not primarily responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate levels. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that primarily regulates metabolism, not calcium and phosphate in the blood.

5. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

• A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
• B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
• C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
• D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

Similar Questions