Nursing Elites

1. While discussing the science of nursing, the nurse identifies the domain of nursing theory. Which linkages should the nurse provide to describe nursing's paradigm?

• A. The person, the environment or situation, and health.
• B. Stress reduction, self-care, and a systems model.
• C. Curative care, restorative care, and terminal care.
• D. Self-actualization, fundamental needs, and belonging.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The person, the environment or situation, and health.' In nursing theory, the paradigm includes these core components: the person receiving care, the environment or situation influencing care, and the goal of achieving optimal health outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the fundamental aspects of nursing theory and its paradigm.

2. An infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula. The mother asks, 'When can the tube be used for feeding?' The nurse's best response would be which of these comments?

• A. "Feedings can begin in 5 to 7 days."
• B. "The use of the feeding tube can begin immediately."
• C. "The stomach contents and air must be drained first."
• D. "The incision healing must be complete before feeding."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The stomach contents and air must be drained first.' Before starting feedings through a gastrostomy tube, it is essential to drain the stomach contents and air. This process helps prevent complications and ensures the proper functioning of the tube after placement. Choice A is incorrect because initiating feedings within 5 to 7 days may lead to complications if the stomach is not adequately prepared. Choice B is incorrect as feeding should not begin immediately to allow for proper preparation of the tube and the stomach. Choice D is incorrect because although incision healing is important, draining the stomach contents and air is a more immediate concern to prevent complications.

3. As a client who is terminally ill has been receiving high doses of an opioid analgesic for the past month and becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli as death approaches, what orders would the nurse expect from the healthcare provider?

• A. Decrease the analgesic dosage by half
• B. Discontinue the analgesic
• C. Continue the same analgesic dosage
• D. Prescribe a less potent drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing the same dosage of analgesic is appropriate to manage pain effectively as death nears and the client becomes unresponsive. The primary goal of palliative care in end-of-life situations is to ensure comfort, regardless of the client's level of consciousness. Decreasing the analgesic dosage or discontinuing it could lead to inadequate pain relief, which goes against the principles of palliative care. Prescribing a less potent drug may also compromise pain management in this critical stage. Therefore, maintaining the same analgesic dosage is the most appropriate action to provide comfort and alleviate suffering.

4. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?

• A. Extreme fatigue
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Intense itching
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.

5. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

Similar Questions