Nursing Elites

1. While conducting a mental status examination of a newly admitted male client, the PN notes that his head is lowered, and he shows no emotion or expression when speaking. Based on these observations, what documentation should the PN include?

• A. Impaired verbalization
• B. Depressed mood
• C. Flat affect
• D. Diminished LOC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Flat affect.' Flat affect refers to a lack of emotional expression, which the PN observed in the client. This observation is significant as it can provide valuable information for the client's mental health assessment and subsequent care planning. Choice A, 'Impaired verbalization,' does not capture the lack of emotional expression seen in the client. Choice B, 'Depressed mood,' may not accurately reflect the observed behavior of the client. Choice D, 'Diminished LOC,' pertains to the level of consciousness, which was not indicated as being a concern in the scenario provided.

2. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

3. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?

• A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
• B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
• C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
• D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.

4. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to increase the risk of a medication error?

• A. Not using abbreviations for medications
• B. Errors in the calculation of medication dosages
• C. Barcoding medication orders
• D. Utilizing unit dose dispensers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Errors in the calculation of medication dosages are a significant risk factor for medication errors. When dosage calculations are incorrect, it can lead to administering the wrong amount of medication, posing serious harm to the patient. Avoiding abbreviations for medications, barcoding medication orders, and utilizing unit dose dispensers are all strategies aimed at reducing medication errors by enhancing accuracy and safety. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are practices that help decrease, rather than increase, the risk of medication errors.

5. Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

• A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine
• B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
• C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
• D. Changing the ventilator circuit daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.

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