HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. When documenting information in a client's medical record, what should the nurse do?
- A. Cross out errors with a single line and initial them
- B. Use a black ink pen
- C. Leave one line blank before each new entry
- D. End each entry with the nurse's signature and title
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When documenting information in a client's medical record, the nurse should end each entry with their signature and title. This practice is crucial for legal and professional standards compliance as it ensures that the documentation is attributable to the responsible individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while crossing out errors, using a black ink pen, and leaving a blank line before each entry are good practices, they are not as critical as ensuring each entry is signed and titled by the nurse for accountability and traceability.
2. The nurse observes a UAP performing oral hygiene on an unconscious client who is lying in a flat side-lying position with an emesis basin on a towel under the chin. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the procedure and tell the UAP to place the client in a Fowler's position
- B. Praise the UAP for doing the oral hygiene but encourage family participation
- C. Tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely
- D. Enroll the UAP in a hospital education class on conducting safe client care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely for oral care. Placing an unconscious client in a side-lying position helps prevent aspiration, and having an emesis basin under the chin is appropriate to catch any fluids. Therefore, the nurse should acknowledge that the UAP is performing the procedure correctly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Placing the client in a Fowler's position is not necessary for this procedure as the client is already positioned safely. Praise and encouragement for family participation are important aspects but not the immediate action needed in this scenario. Enrolling the UAP in a hospital education class is not warranted as the current procedure is being performed correctly.
3. Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?
- A. Lyme disease
- B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
- C. Syphilis
- D. Toxoplasmosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.
4. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?
- A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain.
- B. An infusion of medication into the spinal canal will block pain perception.
- C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus.
- D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.
5. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
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