HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank
1. When caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome, which action should the nurse give the highest priority?
- A. Monitor intake and output
- B. Provide good skin care
- C. Assess level of consciousness
- D. Assist with range of motion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is crucial when caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome. Changes in neurological status can indicate deterioration of the condition, necessitating immediate medical attention. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing the child's level of consciousness. Providing good skin care and assisting with range of motion are also important aspects of care but take a lower priority than assessing the child's neurological status in this critical condition.
2. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. MMR
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Human papillomavirus
- D. Pneumococcal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women to prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Option A, MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine, is not indicated during pregnancy. Option C, Human papillomavirus vaccine, is recommended for prevention of HPV infections but is not specifically indicated during pregnancy. Option D, Pneumococcal vaccine, is important for certain populations but is not the priority vaccine for a pregnant woman in this scenario.
3. While caring for a client with infective endocarditis, the nurse must be alert for signs of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following assessment findings suggests this complication?
- A. Positive Homan's sign
- B. Fever and chills
- C. Dyspnea and cough
- D. Sensory impairment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dyspnea and cough.' Pulmonary embolism often presents with a sudden onset of dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and cough, which are due to the obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary arteries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Positive Homan's sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis, fever and chills are nonspecific symptoms commonly seen in infective endocarditis, and sensory impairment is not typically indicative of pulmonary embolism.
4. The occurrence of non-communicable diseases (NCDs) is on the rise and is attributed to the changing lifestyle of Filipinos. The major NCDs are cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes mellitus (DM). The community health nurse can help address these problems. The major risk factors common to the above-mentioned four major NCDs are:
- A. Unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking
- B. Hypertension, sedentary lifestyle, and poor stress management
- C. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and smoking
- D. Unhealthy diet, alcoholism, and sedentary lifestyle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking.' These are major risk factors associated with cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes mellitus (DM). Unhealthy diet can lead to obesity and other health issues, physical inactivity contributes to various chronic conditions, and smoking is a well-known risk factor for cancer and respiratory diseases. Choice B is incorrect as hypertension is a condition that can result from these risk factors rather than being a risk factor itself. Poor stress management, although important for overall health, is not a major risk factor for the mentioned NCDs. Choice C is incorrect as although obesity is a risk factor, it is not mentioned in the question stem. Choice D is incorrect as alcoholism is not listed among the major NCDs or the common risk factors provided.
5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Anemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.
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