Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a major focus of tertiary prevention?

• A. Preventing the onset of disease
• B. Early detection and treatment
• C. Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness
• D. Health education

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.' Tertiary prevention aims to minimize the effects of a disease or condition that is already established. Choices A, 'Preventing the onset of disease,' and B, 'Early detection and treatment,' are aspects of primary and secondary prevention, respectively. Choice D, 'Health education,' is more related to promoting awareness and knowledge rather than specifically focusing on reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.

2. The nurse at a health fair has taken a client's blood pressure twice, 10 minutes apart, in the same arm while the client is seated. The nurse records the two blood pressures of 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg. What is the appropriate nursing action in response to these readings?

• A. Refer the client to a nutritionist after providing health teaching about a low-sodium diet.
• B. Place the client in a recumbent position and call the paramedics for transport to the hospital.
• C. Talk with the client to assess whether there is stress in the client's life and refer to a counseling service.
• D. Take the client's blood pressure in the other arm and then schedule a healthcare practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate nursing action in response to significantly high blood pressure readings like 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg is to confirm the readings by taking the blood pressure in the other arm. This can help rule out any error or issue specific to that arm. The nurse should then schedule a healthcare practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible to further assess the client's condition and determine the appropriate intervention. Choice A is incorrect because solely referring the client to a nutritionist for a low-sodium diet without further assessment or confirmation of the blood pressure readings is premature. Choice B is incorrect as the client is already seated, and calling paramedics for immediate transport to the hospital is not warranted based solely on the blood pressure readings provided. Choice C is incorrect as stress may not be the sole reason for the high blood pressure readings, and further assessment is required before referring the client to counseling services.

3. Which of the following statements about breastfeeding is correct?

• A. Breastfeeding within 30 minutes after birth can stimulate breastmilk production
• B. Breastmilk should be started 24 hours after delivery
• C. Breastmilk given exclusively for the first 4 to 6 months of life helps avoid introduction of infection
• D. Breastfeeding should be done as often as the baby wants

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement about breastfeeding is that breastmilk given exclusively for the first 4 to 6 months of life helps avoid the introduction of infection. This practice is recommended by health experts for optimal infant health. Choice A is incorrect because breastfeeding should ideally start within the first hour after birth to stimulate breastmilk production. Choice B is incorrect because breastmilk should be initiated as soon as possible after delivery, not after 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect because while feeding on demand is generally encouraged, it should also follow a schedule to ensure adequate nutrition and growth for the baby.

4. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

5. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

• A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
• B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
• C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
• D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

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