Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing an orientation class for new employees at an inner city clinic that serves a low-income population. Which information should the nurse include in the presentation to these new employees?

• A. A lack of transportation is a major barrier for the clinic's clients.
• B. Basic physiologic needs are likely to be unmet in this clinic's client population.
• C. Printed material is less effective for this population with limited reading skills.
• D. Group education classes are often poorly attended by non-compliant clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because addressing basic physiologic needs is crucial for low-income populations. Ensuring that basic needs such as food, shelter, and safety are met is essential for these clients to engage effectively in their healthcare. Choice A talks about transportation, which can be a barrier but may not be the major impediment. Choice C focuses on printed material and reading skills, which are important but not as fundamental as addressing basic physiologic needs. Choice D makes assumptions about client attendance based on compliance, which is not the most critical information to include in an orientation about serving a low-income population.

2. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

3. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

• A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
• B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
• C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
• D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

4. Community health nurses help influence the health of communities through which of the following actions?

• A. legislating health behavior
• B. recording health status of individuals in a similar geographic region
• C. influencing health status and behavior, and engaging in health promotion
• D. none of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Community health nurses play a crucial role in influencing the health of communities by engaging in health promotion activities and influencing health behaviors. Choice A is incorrect as community health nurses do not legislate health behavior but rather educate and promote healthy behaviors. Choice B is incorrect as while community health nurses may record health data, their main focus is on proactive health promotion and intervention, not just documenting health status. Choice D is incorrect because community health nurses actively work to influence health status and behaviors.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat conditions like multiple sclerosis, can cause drowsiness as a side effect. Monitoring for drowsiness is important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because baclofen is not known to cause hypertension. Choice B, Muscle spasms, is not a common side effect of baclofen but rather the symptom it is used to treat. Choice D, Tachycardia, is also incorrect as baclofen is not associated with causing an increase in heart rate.

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