HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?
- A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
- B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
- C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
- D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.
2. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.
- A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
- B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
- C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
- D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.
3. A case manager is preparing a discharge plan for a client following coronary artery bypass grafting surgery. Which of the following client issues should the nurse address first?
- A. Inadequate food supply
- B. Low pain tolerance
- C. Limited social support
- D. Decreased self-esteem
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should address the inadequate food supply first as it directly impacts the client's health post-discharge. Proper nutrition is crucial for recovery after surgery, especially such as coronary artery bypass grafting. While low pain tolerance, limited social support, and decreased self-esteem are all important issues to address, addressing the client's nutritional needs is the priority in this scenario to ensure optimal recovery and healing.
4. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?
- A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
- B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
- C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
- D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.
5. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
- B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
- C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
- D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.
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