HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?
- A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
- B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
- C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
- D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.
2. A nurse is preparing to delegate bathing and turning of a newly admitted client who has end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following assessments should the nurse make before delegating care?
- A. Is the client's family present so the AP can show them how to turn the client?
- B. Has data been collected about specific client needs related to turning?
- C. Does the AP have time to change the client's central IV line dressing after turning her?
- D. Has the AP checked the client's pain level prior to turning her?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before delegating the task of bathing and turning a client with end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP), the nurse must assess specific client needs related to turning. This assessment ensures that the delegated care is tailored to the client's individual requirements, promoting safe and effective care. Option A is incorrect because the presence of the client's family is not directly related to assessing the client's specific needs for turning. Option C is incorrect as it refers to a different task (changing the central IV line dressing) and is not directly related to the turning assessment. Option D is incorrect as checking the client's pain level, although important, is not directly related to the specific needs related to turning the client.
3. Your client is adversely affected with fever, night sweats, occult hematuria, tenderness of the spleen, and Osler's nodes. What disorder would you most likely suspect?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. AIDS/HIV
- C. Pericarditis
- D. Endocarditis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is likely suffering from endocarditis based on the symptoms described. Endocarditis is characterized by fever, night sweats, hematuria, splenomegaly (tenderness of the spleen), and Osler's nodes (painful nodules on the pads of the fingers or toes). While tuberculosis and AIDS/HIV can present with some similar symptoms, the presence of Osler's nodes is more specific to endocarditis. Pericarditis typically presents with chest pain, not the combination of symptoms seen in this case.
4. The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and:
- A. Reduces the potential pain in the wound region or area.
- B. Stops the spread of infection by creating a 'clean' area.
- C. Pushes extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue.
- D. Allows for the introduction of medications in solution form.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because wound irrigation allows for the introduction of medications in solution form to the wound site. Choice A is incorrect because while wound irrigation can help with pain management indirectly by promoting healing, its primary purpose is not to reduce pain directly. Choice B is incorrect as wound irrigation primarily aims to cleanse the wound and remove contaminants rather than creating a 'clean' area to stop infection spread. Choice C is incorrect because wound irrigation does not involve pushing extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue; its main goal is to cleanse the wound and promote healing.
5. A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Insulin must be injected because it needs to work quickly.
- B. Insulin can't be in a pill because it is destroyed in stomach acid.
- C. Have you talked to your doctor about taking pills instead?
- D. I know it is tough, but you will get used to the shots soon.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.
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