Nursing Elites

1. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

• A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
• B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
• C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
• D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

2. A nurse manager is receiving report and is faced with the following situations that require intervention. Which of the following should the nurse manager address first?

• A. No transport assistance is available to take the client to PT.
• B. A client is refusing care from an AP of the opposite gender.
• C. Three staff members have called to say they will be absent.
• D. Two nurses had a heated disagreement about a scheduling issue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Addressing the absence of three staff members should be the nurse manager's priority as it directly impacts staffing levels and patient care. This situation can lead to staffing shortages, affecting patient safety and workload distribution. Option A, lack of transport assistance, although important, can be addressed after ensuring adequate staffing. Option B involves a client's preference and can be addressed by assigning care appropriately. Option D, a disagreement between two nurses, is important but can be addressed after ensuring adequate staffing and patient care.

3. A nurse is providing an in-service about client rights for a group of nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the service?

• A. A nurse can disclose information to a family member with the client's permission
• B. A nurse can apply restraints on an as-needed basis
• C. A nurse can administer medications without consent to a client as part of a research study
• D. A nurse is responsible for informing clients about treatment options

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the in-service about client rights is that a nurse can disclose information to a family member with the client's permission. This respects the client's autonomy and privacy. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should only be applied based on a specific assessment and order, not on an as-needed basis. Choice C is incorrect as administering medications without consent is a violation of ethical principles and legal standards. Choice D is incorrect because while nurses should educate clients about treatment options, the ultimate decision lies with the client after being informed.

4. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

• A. Alcoholism
• B. Renal insufficiency
• C. Hypoparathyroidism
• D. Tumor lysis syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

5. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?

• A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
• B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
• C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
• D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.

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