which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome

HESI LPN

Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet

1. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

2. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

3. A nurse manager is reviewing isolation guidelines with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of isolation guidelines?

A. I will have a client who is on airborne precautions wear a mask when out of their room.
B. I will wear an N95 respirator mask for a client who is on droplet precautions.
C. I will place a client who has compromised immunity in a negative-pressure airflow room.
D. I will instruct visitors to wear a mask when visiting a client who is on contact precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Having a client on airborne precautions wear a mask when out of their room is appropriate to prevent the spread of infection. Choice B is incorrect because the healthcare provider, not the client, wears an N95 respirator mask for a client on droplet precautions. Choice C is incorrect because negative-pressure airflow rooms are used for clients with airborne infections, not compromised immunity. Choice D is incorrect because visitors, not clients, should wear a mask when visiting a client on contact precautions.

4. What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

A. Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
B. Caused by the overproduction of platelets.
C. A bleeding disorder that is characterized by too few platelets.
D. Treated with immune system-boosting medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a bleeding disorder characterized by a low number of platelets in the blood. This condition is not highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which involves abnormal clotting throughout the body (coagulation), leading to depletion of platelets. Choice B is incorrect because idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is actually characterized by a decrease in platelet count, not an overproduction. While immune system-boosting medications may be used in some cases, the primary treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura focuses on increasing platelet counts or managing symptoms.

5. Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.

A. Radicular pain: Pain shooting down the leg from a herniated disc
B. Central neuropathic pain: Pain from nerve damage after a stroke
C. Peripheral neuropathic pain: Pain from diabetic neuropathy in the feet
D. Chronic pain: Pain lasting for more than 3-6 months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because chronic pain is characterized by lasting for a prolonged period, typically more than 3-6 months, and is not necessarily related to acute injuries like a stab wound to the chest. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately match the type of pain with its corresponding example. Radicular pain is pain that radiates along the nerve path, often from a pinched nerve or herniated disc, not a broken bone. Central neuropathic pain arises from damage to the central nervous system, such as after a stroke, not a leg injury. Peripheral neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the peripheral nerves, such as in diabetic neuropathy, not a fractured leg bone.