which of the following statements about rh incompatibility is true
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HESI Maternal Newborn

1. Which of the following statements about Rh incompatibility is true?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to serious complications, usually in subsequent pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh incompatibility often occurs in subsequent pregnancies, not necessarily the first one. Choice B is incorrect as Rh incompatibility does not render a woman infertile but can lead to complications during pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility is not carried by a sex chromosome but involves the Rh factor on red blood cells.

2. According to a study in the year 2013 by Fellman, if a woman is a twin, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins, then:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the study, the chances of a woman bearing twins increase if she is a twin herself, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A is incorrect because the study does not specify that she will bear only monozygotic twins. Choice B is incorrect as the study does not mention any decrease in the chances of becoming pregnant. Choice C is incorrect because the study does not provide information about the woman's health status, focusing instead on the likelihood of bearing twins.

3. In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.

4. A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.

5. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

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