Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements about Rh incompatibility is true?

• A. Rh incompatibility occurs most commonly during a woman’s first pregnancy.
• B. Rh incompatibility is an untreatable condition that leaves a woman infertile for the rest of her life.
• C. Rh incompatibility is an abnormality that is transmitted from generation to generation and carried by a sex chromosome.
• D. Rh incompatibility occurs due to antibodies transmitted to a fetus during subsequent deliveries causing brain damage or death.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to serious complications, usually in subsequent pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh incompatibility often occurs in subsequent pregnancies, not necessarily the first one. Choice B is incorrect as Rh incompatibility does not render a woman infertile but can lead to complications during pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility is not carried by a sex chromosome but involves the Rh factor on red blood cells.

2. A client is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg IM every 12 hours. The available concentration is dexamethasone 10 mg/mL. How many mL of dexamethasone should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use trailing zero.)

• A. 0.6 mL
• B. ---
• C. ---
• D. ---

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculation: (6 mg/dose) / (10 mg/mL) = 0.6 mL per dose. The correct answer is 0.6 mL. This calculation is obtained by dividing the dose needed (6 mg) by the concentration available (10 mg/mL). The resulting value is 0.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are not applicable as the correct answer has been calculated accurately.

3. A client at 27 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine protein concentration of 200 mg/24 hr.
• B. Creatinine level of 0.8 mg/dL
• C. Hemoglobin level of 14.8 g/dL
• D. Platelet count of 60,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 60,000/mm3 is significantly low and can indicate HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. HELLP syndrome requires prompt medical intervention to prevent serious maternal and fetal complications. The other findings listed are within normal limits or not directly related to the severe condition associated with HELLP syndrome.

4. Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:

• A. a carrier of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• B. susceptible to the disease after adolescence.
• C. an acceptor of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• D. susceptible to the disease in late adulthood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.

5. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
• C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
• D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.

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