HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn
1. Which of the following statements about Rh incompatibility is true?
- A. Rh incompatibility occurs most commonly during a woman’s first pregnancy.
- B. Rh incompatibility is an untreatable condition that leaves a woman infertile for the rest of her life.
- C. Rh incompatibility is an abnormality that is transmitted from generation to generation and carried by a sex chromosome.
- D. Rh incompatibility occurs due to antibodies transmitted to a fetus during subsequent deliveries causing brain damage or death.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to serious complications, usually in subsequent pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh incompatibility often occurs in subsequent pregnancies, not necessarily the first one. Choice B is incorrect as Rh incompatibility does not render a woman infertile but can lead to complications during pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility is not carried by a sex chromosome but involves the Rh factor on red blood cells.
2. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?
- A. Dilation of the cervix.
- B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
- C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
- D. Increase in bloody show.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.
3. The client who is 40 weeks gestation seems upset and tells the nurse that the physician told her she needs to have a nonstress test. The client asks why she needs the test. The nurse’s best response would be:
- A. This is a test to see if your stress level is affecting your baby’s growth and well-being.
- B. This is a test to see if your baby will be able to withstand the stress of labor.
- C. This is a test to assess your baby’s well-being now that you are due to deliver soon.
- D. This is a test to let us know if your baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C because the nonstress test is specifically used to assess the baby's well-being close to the due date. It helps determine if the baby is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients in the womb. Choice A is incorrect as the test does not assess the mother's stress level but focuses on fetal well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the test does not predict the baby's ability to withstand labor. Choice D is incorrect because the test does not solely indicate if the baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome; rather, it assesses the current well-being of the baby.
4. If an individual receives a recessive gene for eye color from both parents, the:
- A. gender of the child will not determine the expression of that trait.
- B. recessive trait will be expressed in the child.
- C. recessive trait will be expressed in all the offspring.
- D. recessive trait will be suppressed, and the dominant trait will not be expressed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When an individual inherits a recessive gene for eye color from both parents, the recessive trait will be expressed in the child. This is because having two copies of the recessive gene overrides the presence of any dominant gene. Choice A is incorrect because the expression of the trait is determined by the genetic makeup, not the gender of the child. Choice C is incorrect as the expression of the recessive trait is certain when both parents pass on the recessive gene, but it does not mean that all offspring will express the trait. Choice D is incorrect because if both parents provide a recessive gene, the dominant trait will not be expressed in the child, but it does not mean it will be suppressed; rather, the recessive trait will be expressed.
5. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection that, in advanced stages, can attack major organ systems?
- A. Rubella
- B. Syphilis
- C. Cystic fibrosis
- D. Phenylketonuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Syphilis is the correct answer. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. If left untreated, it can progress through various stages and potentially attack major organ systems, causing severe complications. Rubella, Cystic fibrosis, and Phenylketonuria are not sexually transmitted infections. Rubella is a viral infection, Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system, and Phenylketonuria is a genetic metabolic disorder. These conditions do not typically affect major organ systems in the same way as untreated syphilis.
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