HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn
1. Which of the following statements about Rh incompatibility is true?
- A. Rh incompatibility occurs most commonly during a woman’s first pregnancy.
- B. Rh incompatibility is an untreatable condition that leaves a woman infertile for the rest of her life.
- C. Rh incompatibility is an abnormality that is transmitted from generation to generation and carried by a sex chromosome.
- D. Rh incompatibility occurs due to antibodies transmitted to a fetus during subsequent deliveries causing brain damage or death.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to serious complications, usually in subsequent pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh incompatibility often occurs in subsequent pregnancies, not necessarily the first one. Choice B is incorrect as Rh incompatibility does not render a woman infertile but can lead to complications during pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility is not carried by a sex chromosome but involves the Rh factor on red blood cells.
2. What information should the nurse include when teaching a client at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test?
- A. This test will confirm fetal lung maturity.
- B. This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.
- C. This test will detect fetal infection.
- D. This test will predict maternal readiness for labor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.' The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring the fetal heart rate in response to its own movements. It helps determine if the fetus is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients through placental perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because confirming fetal lung maturity is typically determined through tests like amniocentesis, not the non-stress test. Choice C is incorrect because detecting fetal infection is not the primary purpose of a non-stress test. Choice D is incorrect because predicting maternal readiness for labor is not the purpose of the non-stress test; it focuses on fetal well-being.
3. What is the primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth?
- A. Stimulates crying and lung expansion.
- B. Removes maternal blood from the skin surface.
- C. Reduces heat loss from evaporation.
- D. Increases blood supply to the hands and feet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth is to reduce heat loss from evaporation. This helps maintain the infant's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Choice A (Stimulates crying and lung expansion) is incorrect because drying the infant is not primarily done to stimulate crying but rather to prevent heat loss. Choice B (Removes maternal blood from the skin surface) is incorrect as the main reason is to prevent heat loss, not to remove maternal blood. Choice D (Increases blood supply to the hands and feet) is also incorrect as drying the infant is not intended to increase blood supply but rather to regulate body temperature.
4. Which of the following statements is true of menstruation?
- A. During this time, the endometrium is shed.
- B. During this time, an unfertilized egg is discharged.
- C. During this time, a female can engage in sexual activity with her partner.
- D. During this time, a fertilized egg implants in the uterine lining.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement regarding menstruation is that during this time, an unfertilized egg is discharged along with the shedding of the uterine lining. Choice A is incorrect because the endometrium is shed during menstruation. Choice C is incorrect as menstruation does not prevent a female from engaging in sexual activity with her partner. Choice D is incorrect as a fertilized egg does not undergo mitosis during menstruation but rather implants in the uterine lining for further development.
5. Is a low sperm count or lack of sperm the most common infertility problem in men?
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Rarely
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low sperm count or lack of sperm is indeed one of the most common causes of infertility in men. Factors such as hormonal imbalances, genetic issues, reproductive anatomy problems, and lifestyle factors can also contribute to male infertility. Choice B is incorrect because a low sperm count is a prevalent issue among men facing infertility, making it a common problem. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the prevalence of low sperm count as a cause of infertility in men.
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