Nursing Elites

1. Rubella, also called German measles, is a viral infection passed from the mother to the fetus that can cause birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo.

• A. Rubella
• B. Syphilis
• C. Cystic fibrosis
• D. Phenylketonuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can lead to severe birth defects when contracted by a mother during pregnancy. Rubella is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with causing birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo. Syphilis (Choice B) can be passed from mother to fetus but does not cause the mentioned birth defects associated with Rubella. Cystic fibrosis (Choice C) and Phenylketonuria (Choice D) are genetic conditions and not infections transmitted from mother to fetus, making them incorrect choices in this context.

2. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
• B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
• C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
• D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

3. A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “The medication could cause me to experience heart palpitations.”
• B. “This medication could cause me to experience blurred vision.”
• C. “This medication could cause me to experience ringing in my ears.”
• D. “This medication could cause me to experience frequent urination.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.

4. A client in labor requests nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following nursing actions promotes client comfort?

• A. Assisting the client into a squatting position
• B. Having the client lie in a supine position
• C. Applying fundal pressure during contractions
• D. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client into a squatting position promotes comfort during labor. This position can help relieve pain by utilizing gravity, allowing the pelvic outlet to widen, and potentially facilitating the progress of labor. Lying in a supine position (Choice B) can hinder labor progression and increase discomfort. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can be inappropriate and may cause harm as it is not routinely recommended during labor. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hours (Choice D) is important for bladder management but does not directly address pain relief during labor.

5. A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates?

• A. 75 mg/dl before lunch. This is low; better eat now.
• B. 115 mg/dl 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time.
• C. 115 mg/dl 2 hours after lunch. This is too high; it is time for insulin.
• D. 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: 50 mg/dl after waking from a nap is too low. During hours of sleep, glucose levels should not be less than 60 mg/dl. Snacks before sleeping can be helpful. The premeal acceptable range is 60 to 99 mg/dl. The readings 1 hour after a meal should be less than 129 mg/dl. Two hours after eating, the readings should be less than 120 mg/dl.

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