Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

• A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine
• B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
• C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
• D. Changing the ventilator circuit daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.

2. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.

3. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Ask family members to remain with the client in the evenings from 5 to 8 pm
• B. Administer a prescribed PRN benzodiazepine at the onset of a confused state
• C. Ensure that the client is assigned to a room close to the nurses' station
• D. Postpone administration of nighttime medications until after 11 pm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.

4. What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Insulin deficiency
• B. Overhydration
• C. Excess carbohydrate intake
• D. Excess insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.

5. While ambulating in the hallway following an appendectomy yesterday, a client complains of chest tightness and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Assist the client back to the room
• C. Have the client sit down in the hall
• D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having the client sit down in the hallway is the first action the nurse should implement. This is crucial to prevent further strain on the heart and to provide a safer environment for assessment and potential emergency intervention. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be appropriate later but should not precede ensuring the client's immediate safety. Assisting the client back to the room (Choice B) may not be advisable if the client is experiencing chest tightness and shortness of breath. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice D) is important but would not be the initial action to address the client's immediate symptoms.

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