which law of motion states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

ATI TEAS 7

Mometrix TEAS 7 science practice test

1. Which law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction?

A. Newton's First Law
B. Newton's Second Law
C. Newton's Third Law
D. Law of Universal Gravitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Newton's Third Law of Motion. This law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. It means that when one object exerts a force on a second object, the second object exerts an equal force in the opposite direction back on the first object. This fundamental law describes the relationship between the forces acting on two interacting objects. Newton's First Law (Choice A) is known as the law of inertia and states that an object at rest stays at rest, and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an external force. Newton's Second Law (Choice B) relates the force acting on an object to its mass and acceleration. The Law of Universal Gravitation (Choice D) describes the force of gravity between two objects with mass and the distance between them.

2. What happens to the frequency of a wave if its wavelength decreases while the speed remains constant?

A. Frequency decreases
B. Frequency increases
C. Frequency remains constant
D. Frequency becomes zero

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Frequency increases. Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional in a wave with a constant speed. When the wavelength decreases while the speed remains constant, the frequency must increase to maintain the constant speed of the wave. This relationship is governed by the equation: speed = frequency x wavelength. Choice A is incorrect as frequency increases when wavelength decreases. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency changes in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as the frequency does not become zero but increases when the wavelength decreases.

3. What is the primary hormone released by the parathyroid glands?

A. Insulin
B. Calcitonin
C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
D. Thyroxine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary hormone released by the parathyroid glands is parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphorus levels in the body by increasing calcium levels in the blood through various mechanisms, such as promoting calcium release from bones and increasing calcium absorption in the intestines. Insulin is produced by the pancreas and regulates blood sugar levels, calcitonin is produced by the thyroid gland and helps lower blood calcium levels, and thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that regulates metabolism. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary hormone released by the parathyroid glands.

4. What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope, and how does it relate to its decay rate?

A. The time it takes for half of the initial sample to decay.
B. The time it takes for all of the sample to decay.
C. The rate at which new isotopes are created.
D. The energy released during decay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time it takes for half of the initial sample to decay. After one half-life, half of the radioactive atoms have decayed. The decay rate, however, refers to the rate at which radioactive atoms decay, which is not directly related to the half-life. Choice B is incorrect because it does not correctly define the half-life. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the creation of new isotopes, not the decay process. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the energy released during decay, which is not the same as the concept of half-life.

5. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a population that is:

A. Undergoing rapid evolution due to strong directional selection.
B. Not evolving and at genetic equilibrium with stable allele frequencies.
C. Experiencing a founder effect leading to a reduction in genetic diversity.
D. Dominated by a single homozygous genotype that eliminates all variation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a theoretical population in which allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation, indicating that the population is not evolving. This equilibrium occurs under specific conditions: no mutation, no gene flow, random mating, a large population size, and no natural selection. In this scenario, all genotypes are in proportion to the allele frequencies, and genetic diversity is maintained. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option A suggests rapid evolution due to strong directional selection, which would disrupt the equilibrium. Option C mentions a founder effect, which can reduce genetic diversity but is not a characteristic of a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option D describes a population dominated by a single homozygous genotype, which also does not align with the genetic diversity seen in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.