Nursing Elites

1. Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?

• A. A 16-year-old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week.
• B. A 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
• C. A 25-year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer.
• D. A 70-year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.

2. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.

3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• D. Assess the client's core temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

4. To assess the quality of an adult client’s pain, what approach should the nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
• C. Observe the client’s nonverbal cues.
• D. Determine the client’s pain tolerance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for assessing the quality of an adult client's pain is to ask the client to describe the pain. By doing so, the nurse gains valuable information about the quality, location, and nature of the pain directly from the client. This approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the pain experience. Choice A, asking the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, focuses more on intensity rather than quality. Choice C, observing the client's nonverbal cues, can provide additional information but may not fully capture the client's subjective experience of pain. Choice D, determining the client's pain tolerance, is not directly related to assessing the quality of pain but rather to how much pain a client can endure.

5. A young female client with 7 children is having frequent morning headaches, dizziness, and blurred vision. Her BP is 168/104. The client reports that her husband recently lost his job and she is not sleeping well. After administering a STAT dose of an antihypertensive IV med, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Measure urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion
• B. Request a prescription for pain medication
• C. Use an automated BP machine to monitor for hypotension
• D. Provide a quiet environment with low lighting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using an automated BP machine is crucial to continuously monitor for hypotension after administering an antihypertensive medication. This is essential to prevent a rapid drop in blood pressure that could lead to complications. Measuring urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion is important but not the most immediate concern in this situation. Requesting pain medication is not relevant to the primary issue of managing blood pressure. Providing a quiet environment with low lighting may be beneficial for the client's overall well-being but is not as critical as monitoring for potential hypotension.

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