Nursing Elites

1. Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?

• A. A 16-year-old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week.
• B. A 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
• C. A 25-year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer.
• D. A 70-year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.

2. Which instruction should the nurse provide a client who was recently diagnosed with Raynaud's disease?

• A. Avoid cold temperatures completely.
• B. Take medications only during flare-ups.
• C. Wear gloves when removing packages from the freezer.
• D. Limit physical activity to avoid stress.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with Raynaud's disease is to wear gloves when handling cold items to prevent vasospasm. Raynaud's disease is characterized by vasospasm in response to cold or stress, leading to reduced blood flow to extremities. Wearing gloves when removing packages from the freezer helps minimize exposure to cold temperatures and can prevent triggering vasospasms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding cold temperatures completely is impractical and may not always be possible. Taking medications only during flare-ups does not address prevention strategies, and limiting physical activity to avoid stress is not a primary intervention for Raynaud's disease.

3. A client is admitted to the medical unit during an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). It is most important to report which assessment finding to the healthcare provider?

• A. Low-grade fever.
• B. Muscle atrophy.
• C. Hematuria.
• D. Joint pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematuria is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with SLE during an exacerbation. Hematuria indicates kidney involvement, a serious complication of SLE that requires prompt medical attention. While low-grade fever, muscle atrophy, and joint pain are symptoms that can occur in SLE, hematuria signifies potential renal damage, which is a critical concern in SLE exacerbations.

4. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?

• A. Decrease blood glucose levels
• B. Reduce serum ammonia levels
• C. Increase platelet count
• D. Lower serum bilirubin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.

5. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
• C. AV block.
• D. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

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