Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate a complication of enteral tube feeding?

• A. Abdominal distension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Decreased bowel sounds
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal distension in a patient receiving enteral tube feeding may indicate a complication such as intolerance to feeding, delayed gastric emptying, or obstruction. Abdominal distension is a common sign of gastrointestinal issues related to enteral tube feeding. Weight gain is typically an expected outcome if the patient is receiving adequate nutrition. Decreased bowel sounds may indicate decreased motility but are not specific to enteral tube feeding complications. Diarrhea can occur due to various reasons, including infections, medications, or dietary changes, but it is not the most likely indication of a complication in enteral tube feeding.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administering a bronchodilator
• B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
• C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.

3. The nurse enters a male client's room to administer routine morning medications, and the client is on the phone. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Ask another nurse to return with the medication when the client has hung up the phone
• B. Wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation, and observe the client taking the medication
• C. Return the medication to the client's drawer on the cart and document that the client refused the dose
• D. Leave the medication with the client and let him take it when he finishes the conversation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation and then observe the client taking the medication. This approach ensures that the client takes the medication as prescribed, promoting compliance and safety. Choice A is not ideal as it involves unnecessary delegation and may lead to confusion. Choice C is incorrect because assuming refusal without direct communication can compromise patient care. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the medication with the client unsupervised may result in non-compliance or potential errors.

4. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• B. To improve circulation in the legs.
• C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
• D. To alleviate post-operative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

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