HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. Which action should the PN implement when using standard precautions to provide client care?
- A. Apply sterile gloves to obtain a finger stick blood sample
- B. Wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care
- C. Replace the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection
- D. Wear a paper gown to prevent transmission of droplet pathogens
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When using standard precautions, healthcare providers should wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care. This approach helps prevent the transmission of pathogens and ensures the safety of both the client and the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because applying sterile gloves for a finger stick blood sample is unnecessary when non-sterile gloves would suffice. Choice C is incorrect because replacing the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection is not directly related to standard precautions. Choice D is incorrect because wearing a paper gown is not a standard precaution for preventing the transmission of droplet pathogens.
2. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the nurse observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Loosen the dressing of the fistula
- B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
- C. Document that the fistula is intact
- D. Apply gentle pressure over the site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document that the fistula is intact. The palpable buzzing sensation (known as a thrill) over the AV fistula indicates proper functioning. It is essential for the nurse to document this finding to ensure ongoing monitoring of the fistula's status. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication to loosen the dressing. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not associated with the palpable buzzing sensation of a thrill. Choice D is incorrect as applying pressure over the site is not necessary for this situation.
3. Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
- A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine
- B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
- C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
- D. Changing the ventilator circuit daily
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.
4. When administering parenteral iron, which action would be inconsistent with proper administration?
- A. Using the Z-track method
- B. Using an air bubble to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue
- C. Not massaging the injection site
- D. Using the deltoid muscle for administration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Using the deltoid muscle for administration. Administering parenteral iron in the deltoid muscle is not recommended due to the risk of irritation and pain. The Z-track method (choice A) is preferred to prevent staining and irritation of the skin when administering irritating medications like iron. Using an air bubble (choice B) to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue is a common practice to ensure accurate administration. Not massaging the injection site (choice C) is also a standard practice to prevent potential irritation or bleeding at the injection site.
5. A client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy. The client refuses to participate, stating that the pain is too intense. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer the prescribed analgesic and encourage participation after it takes effect.
- B. Reschedule the physical therapy session for later in the day.
- C. Explain the importance of physical therapy for recovery.
- D. Notify the physical therapist of the client's refusal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering pain medication before physical therapy helps manage the pain, making it easier for the client to participate in the necessary exercises to improve recovery and prevent complications such as joint stiffness. Choice B is not the first step as addressing the pain should take precedence. Choice C is important but should come after managing the pain to facilitate participation. Choice D involves another healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed in this situation.
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