Nursing Elites

1. What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?

• A. Prevents food from entering the trachea
• B. Aids in food propulsion
• C. Enhances taste sensation
• D. Lubricates the esophagus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.

2. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics that the nurse should monitor for in patients?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Constipation
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of opioid analgesics due to the slowing of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased peristalsis and increased water absorption, resulting in constipation. Monitoring for constipation is crucial to prevent discomfort or complications like bowel obstruction. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect of opioid analgesics. Hypertension (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not typically associated with opioid use.

3. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

• A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
• B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
• C. Painful moaning and crying
• D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

4. A nurse is assessing a day-old infant for jaundice. Which of the following is the best method for this?

• A. Applying pressure over a bony area such as the forehead and evaluating the skin color after the pressure is removed
• B. Assessing the color of the infant’s hands and feet
• C. Assessing the infant’s tongue
• D. Assessing the infant’s arms and legs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Applying pressure over a bony area and evaluating the skin color after the pressure is removed is the most accurate method for assessing jaundice in a day-old infant. This technique helps in identifying any yellowing of the skin, which is a key indicator of jaundice. Choices B, C, and D are less effective methods for assessing jaundice in a newborn. Assessing the color of the hands and feet may not give a reliable indication of jaundice, while evaluating the tongue, arms, and legs are not as specific or accurate as applying pressure over a bony area.

5. The PN and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?

• A. Obtain emergency help
• B. Feel for a carotid pulse
• C. Bring a glucometer to the room
• D. Check the blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. When a client is unresponsive, it could indicate a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Ensuring emergency help is on the way is the priority to address the potentially critical situation. Feeling for a carotid pulse, bringing a glucometer, or checking the blood pressure are important assessments but should come after taking steps to secure immediate assistance.

Similar Questions