Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?

• A. Albumin
• B. Calcium
• C. Glucose
• D. Alkaline phosphatase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.

2. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) has been placed on bed rest. The LPN/LVN should reinforce which instruction to the client to prevent complications?

• A. Perform ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Use a heating pad to relieve pain in the affected leg.
• C. Keep the affected leg flat and avoid elevation.
• D. Wear tight compression stockings to prevent swelling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours is crucial for a client with DVT on bed rest. These exercises promote venous return, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Ankle pumps help activate the calf muscle pump, assisting in propelling blood back to the heart and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening. Choice B is incorrect because using a heating pad can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging a clot. Choice C is incorrect because elevation helps reduce swelling and improve venous return. Choice D is incorrect because although compression stockings can be beneficial, they are not the most important instruction for preventing complications in this scenario.

3. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

4. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Monitor for muscle weakness.
• C. Eat foods high in potassium.
• D. Expect weight gain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.

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