HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. What is the primary function of neutrophils?
- A. Heparin secretion
- B. Transport oxygen
- C. Phagocytotic action
- D. Antibody formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.
2. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. After 2 weeks of antidepressant medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving her belongings away to her visitors, and is in an overall better mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective
- D. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. Sudden mood improvements and behavioral changes, like giving away belongings, can be concerning signs of possible suicidal ideation. Assessing for suicidal thoughts is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of harm or assess for suicidal ideation. Choice C is incorrect because simply reassuring the client about the effectiveness of antidepressants does not address the immediate concern of suicidal ideation. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on praising progress without addressing the potential risk of harm the client may pose to herself.
3. The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Increased appetite.
- C. Hyperglycemia.
- D. Fever or sore throat.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.
4. A client with a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is being treated with levothyroxine (Synthroid). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Report any symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you feel well.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide to a client with hypothyroidism being treated with levothyroxine is to report any symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Symptoms of hyperthyroidism, such as palpitations or tremors, may indicate overtreatment or excessive dosing of levothyroxine. Prompt reporting of these symptoms is crucial to prevent serious complications. Choices A and B are not the most critical information related to levothyroxine administration. Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime or with food can be important for adherence but is not as crucial as monitoring for signs of hyperthyroidism. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication if feeling well can lead to a relapse of hypothyroidism symptoms.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Slow the rate of infusion
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Discontinue the IV infusion
- D. Elevate the affected arm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion (Choice C). Pain and swelling at the IV site can indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which are serious complications that require immediate action. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue and can potentially worsen the condition. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevating the affected arm (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; discontinuing the infusion takes precedence to prevent further harm.
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