HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. What is the primary focus of postoperative nursing care for the client with colon trauma?
- A. Monitoring for elevated coagulation studies
- B. Observation for and prevention of fistulas
- C. Monitoring for signs of hyponatremia
- D. Observation for and prevention of infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observation for and prevention of infection. Postoperative nursing care for a client with colon trauma primarily focuses on preventing infections. Clients with colon trauma are at high risk for infections due to the disruption of the intestinal barrier. Monitoring for signs of infection, maintaining proper wound care, administering antibiotics as prescribed, and implementing strict aseptic techniques are essential in preventing postoperative infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because elevated coagulation studies, fistulas, and hyponatremia are not the primary concerns in the immediate postoperative period for a client with colon trauma.
2. Assessment findings of a 3-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate at 42 breaths/min. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel
- B. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket
- C. Record the findings on the flow sheet
- D. Check the vital signs in 15 minutes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to record the findings on the flow sheet. The newborn's axillary temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are within normal limits for a 3-hour-old newborn. Therefore, there is no immediate need for intervention or further assessment. Swaddling the infant in a warm blanket, placing a pulse oximeter on the heel, or checking the vital signs in 15 minutes are not necessary actions based on the normal assessment findings presented. These actions could potentially disrupt the newborn or lead to unnecessary interventions when the baby is stable.
3. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?
- A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
- B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
- C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
- D. CD4 blood cell count of 300
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.
4. When gathering subjective data from a client, what intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Listen attentively
- B. Establish rapport
- C. List problems
- D. Clarify inferences
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Establishing rapport is the initial step the nurse should take when gathering subjective data from a client. Building trust and a good relationship with the client creates an environment where the client feels comfortable sharing accurate and honest information. Listening attentively is important but should come after rapport is established to enhance active listening. Listing problems and clarifying inferences are actions that occur later in the assessment process, after the nurse has established a good rapport and obtained a comprehensive understanding of the client's perspective. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
5. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
- A. Moist mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
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