HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. What is the primary action a healthcare professional should take when a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) arrives in the emergency department?
- A. Apply a cold compress to the chest
- B. Administer oxygen and obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Encourage the patient to walk to reduce anxiety
- D. Provide a high-carbohydrate meal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen and obtaining an ECG are crucial initial steps when managing a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, while an ECG is essential to diagnose an MI promptly. Applying a cold compress, encouraging the patient to walk, or providing a high-carbohydrate meal are not appropriate actions in the initial management of a suspected MI. Applying a cold compress can delay necessary interventions, encouraging the patient to walk may worsen the condition, and providing a high-carbohydrate meal is irrelevant to the immediate needs of a patient with a suspected MI.
2. The UAP reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
- B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
- C. Reschedule the bath for the following day
- D. Ask the client why the bath was refused
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reason for refusal is crucial in identifying and addressing any underlying concerns or issues that may be contributing to the refusal. This approach promotes open communication, client-centered care, and helps in developing a plan of care that is tailored to the client's needs and preferences. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the situation.
3. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Assist the client with a hot bath
- B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
- C. Face the client directly when speaking
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
4. What is the most effective way to communicate with a patient who has expressive aphasia?
- A. Asking yes or no questions
- B. Encouraging the patient to write responses
- C. Using picture boards or communication cards
- D. Speaking slowly and clearly
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most effective way to communicate with a patient who has expressive aphasia is by using picture boards or communication cards. These tools allow patients to convey their needs and responses more effectively when they struggle to speak. Using picture boards or communication cards (Choice C) is preferred as it provides a visual aid to support communication. Asking yes or no questions (Choice A) may limit the patient's ability to express themselves fully. Encouraging the patient to write responses (Choice B) may not be suitable if the patient also has difficulty writing due to the aphasia. While speaking slowly and clearly (Choice D) is important, it may not be sufficient to overcome the communication challenges faced by patients with expressive aphasia.
5. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the PN to review?
- A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
- B. Serum Calcium
- C. Serum Creatinine
- D. WBC
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most important lab value to review before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity. This is because serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired renal function, and administering nephrotoxic drugs in such situations can further damage the kidneys. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps healthcare providers assess renal function and make informed decisions regarding drug administration. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity, making them less crucial in this scenario. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels are more related to bone health and nerve function, and WBC count is associated with immune response, none of which directly reflect kidney function or the risk of nephrotoxicity.
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