Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary action a healthcare professional should take when a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) arrives in the emergency department?

• A. Apply a cold compress to the chest
• B. Administer oxygen and obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Encourage the patient to walk to reduce anxiety
• D. Provide a high-carbohydrate meal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen and obtaining an ECG are crucial initial steps when managing a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, while an ECG is essential to diagnose an MI promptly. Applying a cold compress, encouraging the patient to walk, or providing a high-carbohydrate meal are not appropriate actions in the initial management of a suspected MI. Applying a cold compress can delay necessary interventions, encouraging the patient to walk may worsen the condition, and providing a high-carbohydrate meal is irrelevant to the immediate needs of a patient with a suspected MI.

2. A client is post-operative day one following a colostomy surgery. The nurse notices the stoma is dark purple. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Document the finding and continue to monitor.
• B. Apply warm compresses to the stoma.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A dark purple stoma may indicate compromised blood flow to the stoma, which is an emergency. Immediate notification of the healthcare provider is necessary to prevent further complications. Simply documenting and monitoring the finding (Choice A) could lead to delays in addressing a potentially serious issue. Applying warm compresses to the stoma (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the dark purple color. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) is not the priority when a compromised blood flow to the stoma is suspected.

3. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the PN to review?

• A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
• B. Serum Calcium
• C. Serum Creatinine
• D. WBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most important lab value to review before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity. This is because serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired renal function, and administering nephrotoxic drugs in such situations can further damage the kidneys. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps healthcare providers assess renal function and make informed decisions regarding drug administration. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity, making them less crucial in this scenario. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels are more related to bone health and nerve function, and WBC count is associated with immune response, none of which directly reflect kidney function or the risk of nephrotoxicity.

4. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.

5. The PN is caring for an older client who was informed about the diagnosis of terminal cancer two days ago. Which intervention would be most helpful for the client's spouse at this time?

• A. Consultation with the case manager and hospital chaplain
• B. Visiting after procedures are done to avoid seeing the client in pain
• C. Participating in the client's care within his/her capabilities and desires
• D. Information about palliative and hospice care services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing information about palliative and hospice care services can help the spouse understand the options for managing the client's symptoms and improving the quality of life. This also provides support and guidance during a difficult time. Consulting with the case manager and hospital chaplain may be beneficial for emotional support but may not address the practical aspects of care. Visiting after procedures are done to avoid seeing the client in pain may not foster open communication and support. While participating in the client's care is important, providing information about palliative and hospice care services is the most helpful intervention in this scenario.

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