HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. What is the primary action a healthcare professional should take when a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) arrives in the emergency department?
- A. Apply a cold compress to the chest
- B. Administer oxygen and obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Encourage the patient to walk to reduce anxiety
- D. Provide a high-carbohydrate meal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen and obtaining an ECG are crucial initial steps when managing a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, while an ECG is essential to diagnose an MI promptly. Applying a cold compress, encouraging the patient to walk, or providing a high-carbohydrate meal are not appropriate actions in the initial management of a suspected MI. Applying a cold compress can delay necessary interventions, encouraging the patient to walk may worsen the condition, and providing a high-carbohydrate meal is irrelevant to the immediate needs of a patient with a suspected MI.
2. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?
- A. Increase intake of dried peaches and apricots
- B. Reduce intake of red meats
- C. Encourage use of a soft toothbrush
- D. Force fluid intake to 1500 mL daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.
3. Which task could the nurse safely delegate to the UAP?
- A. Oral feeding of a two-year-old child after application of a hip spica cast
- B. Assessment of the placement and patency of an NG tube
- C. Participation in staff rounds to record notes regarding client goals
- D. Evaluation of a client's incisional pain following narcotic administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a stable child is a task that can be safely delegated to a UAP. This task does not require nursing assessment or clinical judgment. Choice B involves assessment, which requires the nurse's clinical judgment. Choice C involves recording client goals during staff rounds, which may require interpretation and understanding of the goals set. Choice D involves evaluating a client's pain following medication administration, which requires assessment and clinical judgment by a nurse.
4. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
5. What disorder closely matches Suzy's symptoms?
- A. Antisocial personality disorder
- B. Borderline personality disorder
- C. Schizoid personality disorder
- D. Dissociative Identity Disorder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Suzy's symptoms are characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD). BPD includes instability in relationships, self-image, and emotions, as well as impulsivity and self-harm. Choice A, Antisocial personality disorder, is characterized by a disregard for others' rights and lack of empathy, which does not align with Suzy's symptoms. Schizoid personality disorder, choice C, is characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, which is not a prominent feature in Suzy's case. Dissociative Identity Disorder, choice D, involves the presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states, which is not reflected in Suzy's symptoms.
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