Nursing Elites

1. For an older postoperative client with the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling,' which desired outcome best directs the nurse's actions for the client?

• A. The client will ambulate with assistance every 4 hours
• B. The physical therapist will instruct the client in the use of a walker
• C. The client will use self-affirmation statements to decrease fear
• D. The nurse will place a gait belt on the client prior to ambulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use self-affirmation statements is the most appropriate desired outcome in this scenario. By utilizing self-affirmation statements, the client can address their fears directly and build confidence, which can ultimately lead to a reduction in fear of falling. While ambulating with assistance (choice A) is important, the focus here is on addressing the fear itself. Instructing the client in the use of a walker (choice B) and placing a gait belt on the client (choice D) are interventions that may be helpful but do not directly address the client's fear of falling.

2. A male client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is withdrawn, isolates himself in the day room, and answers questions with one or two-word responses. This morning, the practical nurse observes that he is diaphoretic and is pacing in the hall. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Persuade the client to lie down
• B. Provide a drink high in electrolytes
• C. Observe the client during the shift
• D. Measure appropriate vital signs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring vital signs is crucial in this situation as it helps to determine if the client is experiencing a physical health issue or if the symptoms are related to a mental health crisis, such as anxiety or agitation. The presence of diaphoresis and pacing may indicate physiological changes requiring immediate attention. Providing a drink high in electrolytes or persuading the client to lie down may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Simply observing the client during the shift without taking necessary actions to assess his physiological status may delay appropriate intervention.

3. When reinforcing diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypokalemia, which foods should the PN encourage the client to eat? Select All That Apply

• A. Orange juice, oranges, bananas
• B. All are applicable
• C. Collard greens, kale, turnips
• D. Soybeans, lima beans, spinach

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: All are applicable. Foods rich in potassium, such as orange juice, oranges, bananas, collard greens, kale, soybeans, lima beans, and spinach, are essential for managing hypokalemia. These options provide a significant source of potassium, which helps in maintaining normal heart and muscle function. Choice A is incorrect because it does not include all the appropriate potassium-rich foods. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions vegetables rich in potassium, missing out on other essential sources like fruits and beans. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks key potassium-rich foods like oranges and bananas.

4. During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?

• A. Clubbed nails
• B. Splinter hemorrhages
• C. Longitudinal ridges
• D. Koilonychia or spoon nails

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.

5. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

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