based on the computer documentation in the emr which action should the pn implement
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.

2. Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.

3. During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.

4. During a blood transfusion, which sign or symptom should prompt the healthcare provider to immediately stop the transfusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated temperature and chills. These symptoms are indicative of a transfusion reaction, which can be severe and life-threatening. It is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Elevated temperature and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a possible febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Choice A, a slight increase in blood pressure, is not typically a reason to stop a transfusion unless it is a significant sudden increase. Mild nausea (Choice C) and a slight headache (Choice D) are common side effects of blood transfusions and are not primary indicators of a transfusion reaction that require immediate cessation of the transfusion.

5. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.

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