Nursing Elites

1. Thirty minutes after receiving IV morphine, a postoperative client continues to rate pain as 7 on a 10-point scale. Which action should the PN implement first?

• A. Call healthcare provider to request a different analgesic
• B. Determine when morphine can be given again
• C. Implement complementary pain relief methods
• D. Observe dressing to determine the presence of bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the PN to implement first is to implement complementary pain relief methods. This includes repositioning the client, applying heat or cold packs, or using relaxation techniques. These strategies can provide additional pain relief before the next dose of medication is due or before seeking further instructions from the healthcare provider. Calling the healthcare provider immediately to request a different analgesic (Choice A) may not be necessary at this moment since other non-pharmacological methods can be attempted first. Determining when morphine can be given again (Choice B) is important but addressing the client's immediate pain relief takes precedence. Observing the dressing for bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when the client is experiencing unrelieved pain.

2. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• B. To improve circulation in the legs.
• C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
• D. To alleviate post-operative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.

3. A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Encourage deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer.
• B. Administer antipyretic medication as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client’s fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.

4. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative mother after childbirth?

• A. To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies
• B. To treat anemia in the newborn
• C. To increase the mother's white blood cell count
• D. To prevent infection in the newborn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother to prevent the development of antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells. This prevents Rh sensitization, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future Rh-positive pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because RhoGAM is not used to treat anemia in the newborn, increase the mother's white blood cell count, or prevent infection in the newborn.

5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

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