Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate nursing action when a patient on anticoagulant therapy develops sudden, severe back pain?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Apply a cold compress to the back
• C. Assess for signs of internal bleeding
• D. Reposition the patient for comfort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient on anticoagulant therapy experiences sudden, severe back pain, the priority nursing action is to assess for signs of internal bleeding. Severe back pain in this context could be indicative of internal bleeding, such as a retroperitoneal bleed, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Administering pain medication or applying a cold compress may mask or delay the identification of a potentially life-threatening situation. Repositioning the patient for comfort is not the priority when internal bleeding needs to be ruled out.

2. The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?

• A. Swollen and discolored penile shaft
• B. Prepuce extends over the head of the penis
• C. Leaking urine around the top of the catheter
• D. Moist and excoriated perineal skin folds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.

3. The nurse is performing a psychosocial assessment on an adolescent aged 14. Which emotional response is typical during early adolescence?

• A. Frequent anger
• B. Cooperativeness
• C. Moodiness
• D. Combativeness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Moodiness is a typical emotional response during early adolescence. Hormonal changes and developmental challenges contribute to this behavior. While anger and combativeness can also be present during adolescence, they are not as consistently typical as moodiness. Cooperativeness, on the other hand, is a trait more commonly associated with later stages of development and maturity, rather than early adolescence.

4. What is the most effective way to communicate with a patient who has expressive aphasia?

• A. Asking yes or no questions
• B. Encouraging the patient to write responses
• C. Using picture boards or communication cards
• D. Speaking slowly and clearly

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most effective way to communicate with a patient who has expressive aphasia is by using picture boards or communication cards. These tools allow patients to convey their needs and responses more effectively when they struggle to speak. Using picture boards or communication cards (Choice C) is preferred as it provides a visual aid to support communication. Asking yes or no questions (Choice A) may limit the patient's ability to express themselves fully. Encouraging the patient to write responses (Choice B) may not be suitable if the patient also has difficulty writing due to the aphasia. While speaking slowly and clearly (Choice D) is important, it may not be sufficient to overcome the communication challenges faced by patients with expressive aphasia.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

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