Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate nursing action when a patient on anticoagulant therapy develops sudden, severe back pain?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Apply a cold compress to the back
• C. Assess for signs of internal bleeding
• D. Reposition the patient for comfort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient on anticoagulant therapy experiences sudden, severe back pain, the priority nursing action is to assess for signs of internal bleeding. Severe back pain in this context could be indicative of internal bleeding, such as a retroperitoneal bleed, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Administering pain medication or applying a cold compress may mask or delay the identification of a potentially life-threatening situation. Repositioning the patient for comfort is not the priority when internal bleeding needs to be ruled out.

2. After spinal fusion surgery, a client reports numbness and tingling in the legs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities.
• B. Reposition the client to relieve pressure on the spine.
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After spinal fusion surgery, numbness and tingling in the legs may indicate nerve compression or damage. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities. This assessment will help determine the cause and severity of the symptoms, guiding further interventions. Repositioning the client may be necessary for comfort, but assessing neurovascular status is the initial step. Administering pain medication should only follow the assessment to address any discomfort. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action unless there are emergent signs requiring urgent intervention.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

4. Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?

• A. Give the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
• B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
• C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type results
• D. Administer hydrocodone/acetaminophen one tablet for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.

5. The nurse is caring for an elderly female client who tells the nurse, 'When I sneeze, I wet my pants.' After discussing the client's complaint with the charge nurse, the nurse plans to reinforce teaching about the importance of Kegel exercises. What muscles are involved in these exercises?

• A. Pectoral muscles
• B. Buttock muscles
• C. Abdominal muscles
• D. Pelvic floor muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Kegel exercises involve the pelvic floor muscles. These muscles help strengthen the muscles controlling urination, potentially reducing symptoms of urinary incontinence. Pectoral muscles (Choice A), responsible for movement of the shoulders and arms, are not involved in Kegel exercises. Buttock muscles (Choice B) are primarily responsible for hip movement and stability, not related to Kegel exercises. Abdominal muscles (Choice C) support the core and trunk but are not the focus of Kegel exercises.

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