Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

• A. Amikacin
• B. Moxifloxacin
• C. Rifabutin
• D. Cycloserine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

2. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer and reports increasing fatigue. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
• B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
• C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
• D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client undergoing radiation treatment for breast cancer reports increasing fatigue is to reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, and adequate rest and sleep can help manage this symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately (choice A) is not necessary for increasing fatigue, as it is expected during radiation therapy. Offering to reschedule the treatment for the following week (choice B) is not the best initial action for managing fatigue. Planning to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes (choice C) is unnecessary and not directly related to managing fatigue caused by radiation therapy.

3. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

• A. Administering insulin
• B. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal
• C. Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, like glucose tablets
• D. Encouraging the patient to exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets, is the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. This rapid-acting carbohydrate helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, providing immediate relief to the patient. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, exacerbating the hypoglycemia. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal (Choice B) would not act quickly enough to address the immediate low blood sugar issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise (Choice D) is inappropriate during hypoglycemia as it can further deplete glucose levels.

4. An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the PN?

• A. No bowel movement for two days
• B. Mother assists child in changing positions
• C. Weights are touching the foot of the bed
• D. Child is able to move the toes freely when tickled

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In 90-90 traction, it is crucial to ensure that the weights are not touching the foot of the bed as this can disrupt the effective application of traction. This interference can hinder the proper alignment of the fractured femur and impede the healing process. Therefore, this finding requires immediate action to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the proper application of traction and do not pose a risk to the patient's treatment or well-being. No bowel movement for two days may indicate constipation but does not directly relate to the traction. Mother assisting the child in changing positions is a supportive action. The child being able to move the toes freely when tickled indicates neurological function, which is a positive sign.

5. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
• B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
• C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
• D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

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