HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. A registered nurse is preparing to hang the first bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution. The client has a central line, and this is the first bag he will receive. Which of the following is the most essential piece of equipment to obtain prior to hanging the bag?
- A. Blood glucose meter
- B. Noninvasive blood pressure monitor
- C. Electronic infusion pump
- D. Urine test strips
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An electronic infusion pump is essential for administering TPN to ensure accurate delivery and avoid complications such as fluid overload or improper nutrient delivery. The pump helps regulate the flow rate precisely, which is crucial when infusing TPN. Monitoring the client's blood glucose is important but not immediately necessary before hanging the TPN bag. A noninvasive blood pressure monitor is not directly related to administering TPN and is not the most essential equipment needed for this procedure. Urine test strips are not required for administering TPN via a central line and are not essential equipment for this specific task.
2. A male client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is withdrawn, isolates himself in the day room, and answers questions with one or two-word responses. This morning, the practical nurse observes that he is diaphoretic and is pacing in the hall. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Persuade the client to lie down
- B. Provide a drink high in electrolytes
- C. Observe the client during the shift
- D. Measure appropriate vital signs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Measuring vital signs is crucial in this situation as it helps to determine if the client is experiencing a physical health issue or if the symptoms are related to a mental health crisis, such as anxiety or agitation. The presence of diaphoresis and pacing may indicate physiological changes requiring immediate attention. Providing a drink high in electrolytes or persuading the client to lie down may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Simply observing the client during the shift without taking necessary actions to assess his physiological status may delay appropriate intervention.
3. What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
- A. To transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
- B. To protect the body from infections
- C. To help in blood clotting
- D. To regulate body temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and return carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues. Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not involved in protecting the body from infections. Choice C is incorrect because blood clotting is mainly facilitated by platelets and clotting factors, not hemoglobin. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by processes like sweating and shivering, not by hemoglobin.
4. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
5. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?
- A. Prescription for lorazepam
- B. History of Parkinson's disease
- C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
- D. Recent urine drug screen report
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.
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