Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.

2. The PN notes that an older female client has developed a nonproductive cough and seems more confused than the previous day. Vital signs are temperature 99.8°F, pulse 94, respirations 22, and B/P 108/54. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Report the findings to the charge nurse
• B. Monitor the client's temperature hourly
• C. Offer the client fluids frequently
• D. Provide care to moisten oral mucosa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The change in the client’s condition, especially confusion and a new cough, may indicate the onset of an infection such as pneumonia, which requires immediate attention. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures prompt evaluation and intervention. Monitoring the client's temperature hourly (Choice B) could be important but not the most critical at this point. Offering the client fluids frequently (Choice C) and providing care to moisten oral mucosa (Choice D) are not the priority interventions when facing potential signs of infection and confusion in the client.

3. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

• A. Amikacin
• B. Moxifloxacin
• C. Rifabutin
• D. Cycloserine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

4. The nurse is caring for an elderly female client who tells the nurse, 'When I sneeze, I wet my pants.' After discussing the client's complaint with the charge nurse, the nurse plans to reinforce teaching about the importance of Kegel exercises. What muscles are involved in these exercises?

• A. Pectoral muscles
• B. Buttock muscles
• C. Abdominal muscles
• D. Pelvic floor muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Kegel exercises involve the pelvic floor muscles. These muscles help strengthen the muscles controlling urination, potentially reducing symptoms of urinary incontinence. Pectoral muscles (Choice A), responsible for movement of the shoulders and arms, are not involved in Kegel exercises. Buttock muscles (Choice B) are primarily responsible for hip movement and stability, not related to Kegel exercises. Abdominal muscles (Choice C) support the core and trunk but are not the focus of Kegel exercises.

5. When caring for a client with colostomy, which topical skin preparation should the PN apply around the stoma?

• A. Antiseptic cream
• B. Petroleum jelly
• C. Cornstarch
• D. Stomadhesive

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Stomadhesive.' Stomadhesive is a protective barrier used around the stoma to prevent skin irritation and to secure the colostomy bag. This preparation helps to maintain skin integrity and prevent complications such as skin breakdown. Antiseptic cream (Choice A) is not typically used around the stoma as it can irritate the skin. Petroleum jelly (Choice B) is also not recommended as it can interfere with the adhesive properties of the colostomy appliance. Cornstarch (Choice C) is not suitable for application around the stoma as it can promote moisture and lead to skin irritation.

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