HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. The patient has been in bed for several days and needs to be ambulated. Which action will the nurse take first?
- A. Maintain a narrow base of support.
- B. Dangle the patient at the bedside.
- C. Encourage isometric exercises.
- D. Suggest a high-calcium diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a patient needs to be mobilized after being in bed for several days is to dangle the patient at the bedside. Dangling at the bedside is the initial step to assess the patient's tolerance to sitting up and moving. It helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and allows the nurse to evaluate the patient's response to upright positioning before attempting further ambulation. Maintaining a narrow base of support (Choice A) is related to assisting with ambulation but is not the first step. Encouraging isometric exercises (Choice C) and suggesting a high-calcium diet (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed to initiate mobilization in this scenario.
2. What is the most important action for preventing infection in a client with a central venous catheter?
- A. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours.
- B. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily.
- C. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use.
- D. Maintaining sterile technique when handling the catheter.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. This action helps minimize the introduction of pathogens into the catheter site, reducing the risk of contamination and subsequent infection. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important, does not directly address the prevention of infection at the insertion site. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily helps prevent occlusion but does not primarily focus on infection prevention. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is essential for preventing air embolism but does not directly relate to infection control.
3. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?
- A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
- B. Hearing loss and ataxia
- C. Headaches and vomiting
- D. Abdominal mass and weakness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.
4. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. Performing a blood sample for a screening test.
- B. Scheduling a colonoscopy starting at age 60.
- C. Undergoing a fecal occult blood test annually.
- D. Having a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.
5. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?
- A. Pericardial friction rub
- B. Mitral stenosis
- C. Aortic regurgitation
- D. Tricuspid stenosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.
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