Nursing Elites

1. The patient has been in bed for several days and needs to be ambulated. Which action will the nurse take first?

• A. Maintain a narrow base of support.
• B. Dangle the patient at the bedside.
• C. Encourage isometric exercises.
• D. Suggest a high-calcium diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a patient needs to be mobilized after being in bed for several days is to dangle the patient at the bedside. Dangling at the bedside is the initial step to assess the patient's tolerance to sitting up and moving. It helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and allows the nurse to evaluate the patient's response to upright positioning before attempting further ambulation. Maintaining a narrow base of support (Choice A) is related to assisting with ambulation but is not the first step. Encouraging isometric exercises (Choice C) and suggesting a high-calcium diet (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed to initiate mobilization in this scenario.

2. When planning to perform passive range-of-motion exercises for a client, what action should a healthcare professional take?

• A. Repeat each joint motion five times during each session.
• B. Perform the exercises quickly to save time.
• C. Focus only on the most affected joints.
• D. Assess the client's range of motion before starting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to repeat each joint motion five times during each session. Repetition is crucial to maintaining joint flexibility and muscle function. By ensuring each joint motion is repeated, the client can benefit fully from the passive range-of-motion exercises. Choice B is incorrect because quick performance may compromise technique and risk injury. Choice C is incorrect as neglecting less affected joints can lead to imbalances and hinder overall progress. Choice D is incorrect as assessing the client's range of motion beforehand is vital, but it is not the immediate action to take during the exercise session.

3. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

4. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?

• A. When I place my finger in the left hand, the baby does not respond with a grasp.
• B. My baby does not seem to track objects when I move toys in front of their face.
• C. When it thundered loudly last night, the baby did not even startle.
• D. When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.

5. The client is being taught how to use a peak flow meter. The nurse explains that this device should be used to:

• A. Determine oxygen saturation
• B. Measure forced expiratory volume
• C. Monitor the atmosphere for the presence of allergens
• D. Provide metered doses for inhaled bronchodilator

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A peak flow meter is used to measure forced expiratory volume, which helps in monitoring asthma. This measurement provides valuable information about how well the client's lungs are functioning and how narrow their airways are. Choice A is incorrect because determining oxygen saturation is typically done using a pulse oximeter. Choice C is incorrect as a peak flow meter is not used to monitor the atmosphere for allergens but rather to assess lung function. Choice D is incorrect as providing metered doses for inhaled bronchodilators is the function of a metered-dose inhaler, not a peak flow meter.

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