Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which laboratory value would be most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood glucose level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the white blood cell count. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, which is a decrease in white blood cells, particularly neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial to monitor the white blood cell count during chemotherapy. Monitoring hemoglobin level is important but not as critical as white blood cell count in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer, making them less relevant to monitor in this situation.

2. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 3-month-old infant immediately postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus. The healthcare provider needs to

• A. Assess for abdominal distention
• B. Maintain the infant in an upright position
• C. Begin feeding formula when the infant is alert
• D. Pump the shunt to assess for proper function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for abdominal distention is crucial in this situation as it can indicate a complication with the shunt or fluid accumulation. Abdominal distention may suggest an issue with the shunt placement, such as obstruction or overdrainage, which requires immediate intervention. Maintaining the infant in an upright position (Choice B) is not the priority immediately postoperatively following a ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. Beginning formula feedings when the infant is alert (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority over assessing for abdominal distention. Pumping the shunt to assess for proper function (Choice D) is not a recommended nursing intervention postoperatively and should be done by a qualified healthcare provider.

3. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client following knee arthroplasty who requires thigh-high compression sleeves. What should the nurse do?

• A. Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeve.
• B. Apply the sleeve tightly to prevent blood clots.
• C. Ensure the sleeve is snug and comfortable.
• D. Check that the sleeve is loose enough to avoid constriction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeve. This allows for proper circulation and ensures that the sleeve is not too tight, which can lead to complications such as impaired blood flow or tissue damage. Choice B is incorrect because applying the sleeve tightly can actually cause harm rather than prevent blood clots. Choice C is incorrect as snugness alone may not guarantee proper fit. Choice D is incorrect as a sleeve that is too loose can be ineffective in providing the necessary compression.

4. What is the most important action for preventing infection in a client with a central venous catheter?

• A. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours.
• B. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily.
• C. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use.
• D. Maintaining sterile technique when handling the catheter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. This action helps minimize the introduction of pathogens into the catheter site, reducing the risk of contamination and subsequent infection. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important, does not directly address the prevention of infection at the insertion site. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily helps prevent occlusion but does not primarily focus on infection prevention. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is essential for preventing air embolism but does not directly relate to infection control.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 0.5 ml
• B. 1 ml
• C. 1.5 ml
• D. 2 ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.

Similar Questions