Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which laboratory value would be most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood glucose level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the white blood cell count. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, which is a decrease in white blood cells, particularly neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial to monitor the white blood cell count during chemotherapy. Monitoring hemoglobin level is important but not as critical as white blood cell count in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer, making them less relevant to monitor in this situation.

2. Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?

• A. Schedule staff efficiently to cover the needs of the managed unit
• B. Assume a fair share of direct client care to set an example
• C. Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
• D. Delegate tasks to reduce workload associated with direct care and meetings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.

3. An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “I never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. You should comply with the request
• B. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
• C. I will call your family to discuss this
• D. It’s not a big deal; just remove them

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to acknowledge and address the client's concerns empathetically. By expressing understanding and asking if the client is worried about being seen without their teeth, the nurse shows empathy and attempts to alleviate the client's anxiety. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings. Choice C is inappropriate as it does not directly address the client's agitation. Choice D is not the best response as it minimizes the client's feelings and does not provide emotional support.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Measure the client's vital signs.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.

5. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

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