HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A client is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which laboratory value would be most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Blood glucose level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the white blood cell count. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, which is a decrease in white blood cells, particularly neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial to monitor the white blood cell count during chemotherapy. Monitoring hemoglobin level is important but not as critical as white blood cell count in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer, making them less relevant to monitor in this situation.
2. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?
- A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
- B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
- C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
- D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.
3. The healthcare provider is teaching a patient about contact lens care. Which instructions will the healthcare provider include in the teaching session?
- A. Use tap water to clean soft lenses.
- B. Wash and rinse the lens storage case daily.
- C. Reuse storage solution for no longer than a week.
- D. Keep the lenses in a cool, dry place when not in use.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Washing and rinsing the lens storage case daily is essential to prevent contamination and infections. Choice A is incorrect as tap water should not be used to clean soft lenses due to the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. Choice C is incorrect as the storage solution should not be reused for longer than recommended to maintain its effectiveness and prevent eye infections. Choice D is incorrect because lenses should be stored in a clean, disinfected case, not just in a cool, dry place, to avoid contamination.
4. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the restraints every 4 hours.
- B. Attach the restraints securely to the side of the client's bed.
- C. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible.
- D. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.
5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
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