a client is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer which laboratory value would be most important for the nurse to monitor
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. A client is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which laboratory value would be most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the white blood cell count. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, which is a decrease in white blood cells, particularly neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial to monitor the white blood cell count during chemotherapy. Monitoring hemoglobin level is important but not as critical as white blood cell count in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer, making them less relevant to monitor in this situation.

2. When should the nurse plan to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity as ordered by a client's provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct time to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is in the morning upon rising. This timing ensures the most concentrated sample as sputum produced overnight tends to accumulate and sit in the airways, providing a quality sample for testing. Collecting the specimen immediately after eating breakfast (choice B) may introduce food particles that could contaminate the sample. Collecting it before bed (choice C) may lead to a diluted sample due to daily activities. Collecting the specimen after having a drink of water (choice D) can also result in a diluted sample, impacting the accuracy of the test results.

3. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.

4. A client with a terminal illness asks the nurse about what would happen if she arrived at the emergency department and had difficulty breathing, despite declining resuscitation in her living will. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to provide oxygen through a tube in the client's nose. Oxygen therapy can offer comfort and support breathing without being considered resuscitative. Therefore, this intervention aligns with the client's wish to decline resuscitation. Option A is not directly related to addressing the client's immediate breathing difficulty. Option C does not acknowledge the client's living will decision. Option D involves a more invasive procedure that may go against the client's wishes to decline resuscitation.

5. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

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