HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. The occurrence of non-communicable diseases (NCDs) is on the rise and is attributed to the changing lifestyle of Filipinos. The major NCDs are cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes mellitus (DM). The community health nurse can help address these problems. The major risk factors common to the above-mentioned four major NCDs are:
- A. Unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking
- B. Hypertension, sedentary lifestyle, and poor stress management
- C. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and smoking
- D. Unhealthy diet, alcoholism, and sedentary lifestyle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking.' These are major risk factors associated with cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes mellitus (DM). Unhealthy diet can lead to obesity and other health issues, physical inactivity contributes to various chronic conditions, and smoking is a well-known risk factor for cancer and respiratory diseases. Choice B is incorrect as hypertension is a condition that can result from these risk factors rather than being a risk factor itself. Poor stress management, although important for overall health, is not a major risk factor for the mentioned NCDs. Choice C is incorrect as although obesity is a risk factor, it is not mentioned in the question stem. Choice D is incorrect as alcoholism is not listed among the major NCDs or the common risk factors provided.
2. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to
- A. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Prepare for immediate defibrillation
- C. Notify the 'Code' team and healthcare provider
- D. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.
3. To prevent keratitis in an unconscious client, where should the nurse apply moisturizing ointment?
- A. Finger and toenail quicks
- B. Eyes
- C. Perianal area
- D. External ear canals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eyes. Applying moisturizing ointment to the eyes helps prevent keratitis, a condition that can occur due to inadequate blinking in unconscious clients, leading to corneal dryness and potential damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as moisturizing ointment should not be applied to finger and toenail quicks, perianal area, or external ear canals to prevent keratitis.
4. The nurse is caring for a child with cystic fibrosis. The nurse would anticipate that the child would be deficient in which vitamins?
- A. B, D, and K
- B. A, D, and K
- C. A, C, and D
- D. A, B, and C
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Children with cystic fibrosis often have difficulty absorbing fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, and K) due to pancreatic insufficiency, making supplementation necessary. Choice A (B, D, and K) is incorrect because vitamin A deficiency is not commonly associated with cystic fibrosis. Choice C (A, C, and D) is incorrect as vitamin C deficiency is not typically related to cystic fibrosis. Choice D (A, B, and C) is incorrect as vitamin B deficiencies are not commonly seen in cystic fibrosis but rather fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies.
5. While performing an initial assessment on a newborn following a breech delivery, the nurse suspects hip dislocation. Which of the following is most suggestive of the abnormality?
- A. Flexion of lower extremities
- B. Negative Ortolani response
- C. Lengthened leg of affected side
- D. Irregular hip symmetry
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Irregular hip symmetry, such as asymmetry in the gluteal folds, is a common sign of hip dislocation in newborns. This finding indicates a potential abnormality in hip development and requires further evaluation and possible treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Flexion of lower extremities is a normal newborn reflex, the Ortolani response is used to detect hip dysplasia rather than hip dislocation, and a lengthened leg of the affected side is not typically associated with hip dislocation in newborns.
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