Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which client complaint calls for immediate nursing action?

• A. Diaphoresis and shakiness
• B. Reduced sensation in the lower leg
• C. Intense thirst and hunger
• D. Painful hematoma on thigh

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaphoresis and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia in a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The nurse should address this complaint promptly by providing a fast-acting source of glucose to raise the client's blood sugar levels. Reduced sensation in the lower leg may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a common complication of diabetes but does not require immediate action unless there are signs of injury. Intense thirst and hunger are symptoms of hyperglycemia, which also requires intervention but not as urgently as hypoglycemia. A painful hematoma on the thigh may require assessment and management, but it is not as urgent as addressing hypoglycemia.

2. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

3. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who functions in a comprehensive executive role to set goals, formulate policy, and direct and evaluate the health service.

• A. manager
• B. researcher
• C. health educator
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'manager.' In the job description provided, the role involves setting goals, formulating policy, and directing and evaluating health services, which aligns with the responsibilities of a manager. A 'researcher' primarily focuses on conducting research, a 'health educator' specializes in educating individuals about health-related topics, and a 'health promotion specialist' concentrates on promoting health and wellness initiatives. Therefore, 'manager' is the most suitable title for the described role.

4. You organize community groups to participate in community activities. You can BEST motivate participation in the community health development program by:

• A. Conducting group work
• B. Instructing the people to agree with your plans
• C. Allowing the people to exercise decision-making
• D. Assigning people participative roles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing people to exercise decision-making is the best way to motivate participation in community activities. By involving the community in decision-making processes, you empower them and make them feel valued, which can lead to increased engagement and commitment. Choices A, B, and D do not foster a sense of ownership and empowerment among the community members, which are crucial for sustainable participation in community programs.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

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