Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

3. Which presentation of an infectious disease is acquired through an indirect transmission?

• A. Syphilis contracted from a sexual partner.
• B. Measles resulting from a daycare center outbreak.
• C. Malaria following exposure in a mosquito-infested area.
• D. Nosocomial influenza spreading rapidly in a long-term care center.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Malaria is transmitted indirectly through mosquito bites. Choice A is incorrect as syphilis is acquired through direct contact with an infected sexual partner. Choice B is incorrect as measles can be transmitted through respiratory droplets in close contact settings like daycare centers. Choice D is incorrect as nosocomial influenza spreads within healthcare facilities through direct contact or droplets.

4. In addition to disturbances in mental awareness and orientation, a client with cognitive impairment is also likely to show loss of ability in

• A. Hearing, speech, and sight
• B. Endurance, strength, and mobility
• C. Learning, creativity, and judgment
• D. Balance, flexibility, and coordination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with cognitive impairment often experience difficulties in learning new information, creative thinking, and making sound judgments. Loss of ability in hearing, speech, and sight (Choice A) is more closely related to sensory impairments rather than cognitive impairment. Endurance, strength, and mobility (Choice B) are more associated with physical capabilities rather than cognitive functions. Balance, flexibility, and coordination (Choice D) are related to motor skills and physical coordination, not cognitive impairment.

5. The nurse is reviewing a depressed client's history from an earlier admission. Documentation of anhedonia is noted. The nurse understands that this finding refers to:

• A. Reports of difficulty falling and staying asleep
• B. Expression of persistent suicidal thoughts
• C. Lack of enjoyment in usual pleasures
• D. Reduced senses of taste and smell

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lack of enjoyment in usual pleasures. Anhedonia is the inability to feel pleasure in normally pleasurable activities. Choice A, reports of difficulty falling and staying asleep, is more indicative of insomnia rather than anhedonia. Choice B, expression of persistent suicidal thoughts, is related to suicidal ideation and not anhedonia. Choice D, reduced senses of taste and smell, is more associated with disturbances in the sense of taste and smell, not anhedonia.

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