Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

2. Prior to initiating a community health program targeting teenage smoking, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. The incidence of smoking among the teenage population in this community.
• B. The amount of available funding for tobacco prevention education programs.
• C. The target objectives for teenage smoking described by Healthy People 2020.
• D. Satisfaction data from programs that targeted the teenage population in this community.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain before initiating a community health program targeting teenage smoking is the incidence of smoking among the teenage population in the community. Understanding the prevalence of smoking will help in designing effective intervention strategies. Choice B about funding, while important, is secondary to understanding the scope of the issue. Choice C, the target objectives from Healthy People 2020, may provide guidance but are not as crucial as knowing the local prevalence. Choice D, satisfaction data from previous programs, does not provide essential information for planning a new program.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

4. After accepting the position of school nurse in a public elementary school, what strategy is best for the nurse to use to obtain an overview understanding of the student body?

• A. Review all health records of the students currently enrolled in classes.
• B. Talk with the current members of the parent-teacher association.
• C. Send a survey form to parents of third-grade students.
• D. Conduct a windshield survey of the geographic areas served by the school.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conducting a windshield survey is the best strategy for the nurse to obtain an overview understanding of the student body. This method allows the nurse to observe the community, its resources, potential health hazards, and demographic information. Reviewing health records (Choice A) would provide detailed health information but not an overview of the student body. Talking with the parent-teacher association (Choice B) may offer insights but not a comprehensive overview. Sending a survey form to parents (Choice C) may provide specific information but may not capture a broad understanding of the student body.

5. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:

• A. The complaints of at least 3 common findings.
• B. The absence of any opportunistic infection.
• C. CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200.
• D. Developmental delays in children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.

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