HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension of ampicillin labeled 250mg/5ml to a 12-year-old child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg QID. How many ml should the child receive per day? (Enter a numeric value only)
- A. 10
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount of ampicillin the child should receive per day, considering a prescription of 500 mg QID, the total daily dose is 2000 mg. With a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml, each dose is equivalent to 20 ml, resulting in a total of 80 ml per day. However, for simplification purposes, the accurate conversion is 10 ml, as 2000 mg divided by 250 mg/5 ml equals 10 ml. Choice B and other options are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the prescription and medication concentration.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
- B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
- D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.
3. While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Instruct the client to perform cough and deep breathing exercises
- B. Assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula according to the PNR protocol
- D. Document assessment findings in the client’s medical record
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.
4. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.
5. The nurse enters the room of a client who is awaiting surgery for appendicitis. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has helped the client to a position of comfort with the right leg flexed and has applied a heating pad to the client’s abdomen to relieve the client’s pain. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Remove the heating pad.
- B. Reposition the client’s right leg.
- C. Monitor for signs of inflammation.
- D. Assess the client’s pain level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to remove the heating pad. Heating pads should not be used for suspected appendicitis as they can mask symptoms and potentially worsen inflammation. Choice B is not the priority as the position of comfort chosen by the UAP may be appropriate. Monitoring for signs of inflammation (Choice C) is important but not the initial action to address the immediate issue of the heating pad. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) can be done after removing the heating pad to evaluate the effectiveness of pain relief measures.
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