Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

2. After medicating the client for pain and collecting granules and stones from strained urine, which action is most important for the nurse to implement next?

• A. Send the calculi for laboratory analysis of stone composition.
• B. Evaluate the client for persistent pain.
• C. Assess the clarity of urine.
• D. Encourage high fluid intake to produce urine output of 2L/day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sending the calculi for analysis is crucial in determining the type of stone present. Identifying the stone composition helps in developing an effective treatment plan and preventive measures to avoid future episodes of urolithiasis. This step is essential in providing targeted care for the client. Options B, C, and D are not the most important actions at this point. While evaluating for persistent pain is essential, determining the stone composition takes precedence to guide appropriate interventions.

3. The nurse receives change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?

• A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm on the dressing
• B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
• C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
• D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing and fever and chills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A collapsed lung with significant blood accumulation requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory compromise. Option A may also require attention, but the immediate threat to airway and breathing in option C takes precedence over the others. Option B has expected drainage after a mastectomy, and option D's fever and chills, while concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk as in option C.

4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has undergone abdominal surgery. What instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks
• B. Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection
• C. Resume normal activities as soon as possible
• D. Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks.' After abdominal surgery, it is essential to avoid heavy lifting to prevent complications such as incisional hernias and support proper healing. Choice B, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection,' is incorrect because adequate fluid intake is necessary for wound healing and preventing dehydration. Choice C, 'Resume normal activities as soon as possible,' is incorrect as it may increase the risk of complications and delay healing. Choice D, 'Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks,' is incorrect as the restriction on driving may vary depending on the type of surgery and individual recovery.

5. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit? The client who is

• A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
• B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago.
• C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
• D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from dehydration caused by severe diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client who is ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago is stable enough for transfer compared to the other clients. Choice A should not be transferred as the client is still in the learning phase of self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, requiring close monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred immediately after having a permanent pacemaker insertion as they need telemetry monitoring for any complications. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to dehydration caused by severe diarrhea, requiring immediate intervention and close monitoring on the telemetry unit.

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