Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client following cardioversion. Which observation should be of the highest priority to the healthcare provider?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Status of airway
• C. Oxygen flow rate
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The status of the airway is the highest priority following cardioversion as it ensures proper oxygenation and helps prevent complications such as airway obstruction and respiratory distress. Maintaining a patent airway is crucial for the client's respiratory function and overall well-being immediately after cardioversion. Monitoring the airway ensures that the client can breathe effectively and minimizes the risk of hypoxia and other serious respiratory issues. While blood pressure, oxygen flow rate, and level of consciousness are also important parameters to monitor, they are secondary to ensuring a clear and patent airway for adequate oxygenation.

2. A client has been taking levothyroxine for 6 months. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased TSH levels
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client taking levothyroxine for thyroid hormone replacement, decreased TSH levels indicate that the medication is effective. TSH levels decrease as the thyroid hormone levels are adequately replaced by levothyroxine, signaling a positive response to treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are not expected findings indicating the effectiveness of levothyroxine therapy. Weight gain may suggest inadequate dosing, while increased heart rate and elevated blood pressure could indicate over-replacement or side effects of the medication.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
• B. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.
• C. Report any weight loss of more than 2 pounds in a week.
• D. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for discharge teaching regarding digoxin (Lanoxin) is to advise the client to take their pulse before each dose and to hold the medication if their pulse is below 60 beats per minute. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the pulse is crucial to prevent potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because excessive fluid intake can lead to fluid overload, worsening heart failure. Choice C is not directly related to digoxin therapy. Choice D is inaccurate as digoxin is usually taken on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.

5. A client with a history of angina is scheduled for an exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to evaluate which factor?

• A. The heart's response to physical stress
• B. The client's overall physical fitness
• C. The presence of electrolyte imbalances
• D. The effectiveness of anti-anginal medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test is used to evaluate the heart's response to physical stress. During the test, the heart's electrical activity is monitored while the client exercises, helping to identify any areas of ischemia or abnormal rhythms. This test helps healthcare providers assess the heart's function and detect any potential issues related to angina or other cardiac conditions. Choice B, the client's overall physical fitness, is incorrect because the test primarily focuses on the heart's response to stress rather than the client's general physical fitness. Choice C, the presence of electrolyte imbalances, is incorrect as this test is not specifically designed to evaluate electrolyte levels. Choice D, the effectiveness of anti-anginal medications, is incorrect as the main purpose of the test is to assess the heart's response to physical stress, not medication effectiveness.

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