Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client following cardioversion. Which observation should be of the highest priority to the healthcare provider?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Status of airway
• C. Oxygen flow rate
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The status of the airway is the highest priority following cardioversion as it ensures proper oxygenation and helps prevent complications such as airway obstruction and respiratory distress. Maintaining a patent airway is crucial for the client's respiratory function and overall well-being immediately after cardioversion. Monitoring the airway ensures that the client can breathe effectively and minimizes the risk of hypoxia and other serious respiratory issues. While blood pressure, oxygen flow rate, and level of consciousness are also important parameters to monitor, they are secondary to ensuring a clear and patent airway for adequate oxygenation.

2. The client is scheduled to undergo a treadmill stress test. Which instruction should the client be reinforced with?

• A. Eat a light meal before the test.
• B. Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.
• C. Avoid all physical activity the morning of the test.
• D. Take prescribed medications right before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.' Wearing comfortable shoes and clothing is crucial for the client undergoing a treadmill stress test to ensure they can complete the test without discomfort. The right attire will help the client move freely and reduce the risk of any hindrance during the test, which requires physical activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A light meal before the test may be recommended, but it's not as crucial as wearing suitable attire. Avoiding physical activity the morning of the test is not necessary as the test requires physical activity. Taking prescribed medications right before the test instructions should be followed as per the healthcare provider's advice and not as a general rule for all clients undergoing the test.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Limit your fluid intake to avoid fluid overload.
• B. Increase your potassium intake by eating bananas and oranges.
• C. Weigh yourself once a week to monitor for fluid retention.
• D. Take the medication at night to avoid frequent urination during the day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce with the client is to increase potassium intake by eating bananas and oranges. Furosemide can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. By increasing potassium intake through diet, the client can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance and maintain overall health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting fluid intake is not the appropriate instruction, as furosemide is a diuretic that already helps in fluid management. Weighing once a week is not as crucial as monitoring potassium levels, and taking the medication at night does not impact potassium levels.

4. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline toxicity?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Nausea
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is an early sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this symptom as it can progress to more severe toxicity. Nausea can be a warning sign to prevent further complications and adjust the dosage as necessary. Drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of theophylline but not a specific sign of toxicity. Bradycardia (choice B) and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

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