the nurse is instructing a client with allergic rhinitis about the correct technique for using what to provide the clients
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. The client is being instructed on the correct technique for using... what to provide the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using an inhaler for allergic rhinitis involves holding one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril to ensure proper delivery of the medication. This technique helps direct the medication into the nasal passages for optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to an incorrect technique for inhaler use. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler is often necessary to ensure proper mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect as the timing of inhaler use is typically based on individual preferences or healthcare provider recommendations, not specifically tied to the morning.

2. A client has been prescribed losartan. Which change in data indicates to the practical nurse (PN) that the desired effect of this medication has been achieved?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Losartan is prescribed for the treatment of hypertension. The desired effect of losartan is to reduce blood pressure. Therefore, a reduction in blood pressure from 160/90 to 130/80 mm Hg indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved. Choices A, B, and C are not specific effects of losartan and do not directly relate to the expected outcomes of this medication. Dependent edema, serum HDL levels, and pulse rate are not typically influenced by losartan, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

3. What action should be taken six days after starting a prescription for oral amoxicillin solution?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is important to monitor for any new symptoms that may indicate a worsening condition or side effects when taking oral amoxicillin solution. This proactive approach helps in assessing the effectiveness and safety of the medication.

4. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

Similar Questions

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A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?
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