Nursing Elites

1. The client is being instructed on the correct technique for using... what to provide the client?

• A. Angle the tip of the inhaler upwards while spraying
• B. Hold one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril
• C. Avoid shaking the inhaler immediately before using
• D. Use the inhaler when first awakening in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using an inhaler for allergic rhinitis involves holding one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril to ensure proper delivery of the medication. This technique helps direct the medication into the nasal passages for optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to an incorrect technique for inhaler use. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler is often necessary to ensure proper mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect as the timing of inhaler use is typically based on individual preferences or healthcare provider recommendations, not specifically tied to the morning.

2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of escitalopram is drowsiness. Escitalopram is known to cause sedation, so clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness, such as driving, until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are also common side effects of various medications but are not specifically associated with escitalopram.

3. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the client's health care provider.
• B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
• C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
• D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.

4. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect of this medication?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Bleeding or bruising
• C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects related to bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect. Gastrointestinal bleeding is a severe side effect associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, such as black, tarry stools or vomiting blood, is essential to prevent serious complications.

5. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Headache
• C. Muscle cramping
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.

Similar Questions