Nursing Elites

1. The client is being instructed on the correct technique for using... what to provide the client?

• A. Angle the tip of the inhaler upwards while spraying
• B. Hold one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril
• C. Avoid shaking the inhaler immediately before using
• D. Use the inhaler when first awakening in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using an inhaler for allergic rhinitis involves holding one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril to ensure proper delivery of the medication. This technique helps direct the medication into the nasal passages for optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to an incorrect technique for inhaler use. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler is often necessary to ensure proper mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect as the timing of inhaler use is typically based on individual preferences or healthcare provider recommendations, not specifically tied to the morning.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in the urine or stool, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or nosebleeds, to ensure early detection and intervention.

3. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed fluoxetine. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
• B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients prescribed fluoxetine should not stop taking the medication once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as directed by the healthcare provider to prevent relapse or potential worsening of symptoms. Abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may not effectively manage the condition. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to follow the healthcare provider's guidance regarding the duration of treatment with fluoxetine.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Nausea
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate, the nurse must monitor for hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia. Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include fatigue, confusion, constipation, and muscle weakness. Regular monitoring of calcium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with elevated calcium levels.

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