Nursing Elites

1. The client is being instructed on the correct technique for using... what to provide the client?

• A. Angle the tip of the inhaler upwards while spraying
• B. Hold one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril
• C. Avoid shaking the inhaler immediately before using
• D. Use the inhaler when first awakening in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using an inhaler for allergic rhinitis involves holding one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril to ensure proper delivery of the medication. This technique helps direct the medication into the nasal passages for optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to an incorrect technique for inhaler use. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler is often necessary to ensure proper mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect as the timing of inhaler use is typically based on individual preferences or healthcare provider recommendations, not specifically tied to the morning.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage bradycardia promptly.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of buspirone is drowsiness. It is important for clients to be informed about this side effect, as it can affect their ability to perform tasks that require full alertness, such as driving. Clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth is a common side effect of some other medications used for anxiety, such as benzodiazepines. Nausea and headache are not typically associated with buspirone use.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed empagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Genital infections
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Empagliflozin, a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. This is due to its mechanism of action, which involves promoting the excretion of glucose through urine, creating a more favorable environment for fungal or bacterial growth in the genital area. Choices B and C, hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, are less likely adverse effects of empagliflozin. Empagliflozin actually carries a low risk of causing hypoglycemia since it works independently of insulin. Nausea (Choice D) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of empagliflozin, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sitagliptin, a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor used in type 2 diabetes, has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While hypoglycemia is a potential adverse effect of some diabetes medications, it is less common with sitagliptin. Hyperglycemia is the condition being treated and is not an expected adverse effect of sitagliptin.

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