Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?

• A. Tossed salad with low-sodium dressing, bacon, and tomato sandwich.
• B. New England clam chowder, unsalted crackers, fresh fruit salad.
• C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.
• D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, and a slice of cherry pie.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.

2. A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

• A. Oil retention
• B. Soapsuds
• C. Saline
• D. Hypertonic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

3. A nurse is caring for a young adult at a college health clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Give the client information about immunization against meningitis.
• B. Tell the client to have a TB skin test every 2 years.
• C. Determine the client’s health risks.
• D. Teach the client about exercise recommendations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s health risks is the priority as it provides essential information to guide subsequent care. By understanding the client’s health risks, the nurse can tailor health education and interventions, such as immunizations and lifestyle modifications, to address specific needs. Providing information about immunization against meningitis (Choice A) is important but should come after assessing health risks. Instructing the client to have a TB skin test every 2 years (Choice B) is relevant but not the initial step in care. Teaching about exercise recommendations (Choice D) is also essential but should follow the assessment of health risks.

4. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

5. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Increase in hematocrit
• B. Increase in respiratory rate
• C. Decrease in heart rate
• D. Decrease in capillary refill time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.

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