HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?
- A. Tossed salad with low-sodium dressing, bacon, and tomato sandwich.
- B. New England clam chowder, unsalted crackers, fresh fruit salad.
- C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.
- D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, and a slice of cherry pie.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.
2. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate
- B. Check the client's urine output
- C. Administer the potassium chloride as a rapid IV push
- D. Dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.
3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Positive bowel sounds
- B. Rebound tenderness
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Elevated temperature
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.
4. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
- B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
- C. Clean the perineal area with an antiseptic solution daily.
- D. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. This step helps prevent obstruction in the tubing, maintaining proper urine flow and reducing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not recommended unless clinically indicated, as routine changes can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Cleaning the perineal area with an antiseptic solution is essential for general hygiene but does not directly prevent catheter-related infections. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a standard practice and can introduce microorganisms into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection.
5. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer due to a lesion on the anterior thigh. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a possible indication of a skin malignancy?
- A. An uneven shape
- B. A uniformly colored lesion
- C. A lesion that is small and flat
- D. A lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An uneven shape of a lesion is a common characteristic of malignant skin lesions. Asymmetric or irregularly shaped lesions are concerning for skin cancer and should be reported promptly for further evaluation and management. Choice B, a uniformly colored lesion, is more indicative of a benign lesion as malignant lesions often exhibit variations in color. Choice C, a lesion that is small and flat, does not necessarily indicate malignancy by itself. Choice D, a lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter, is more suggestive of a benign lesion, as malignant lesions are typically larger in size.
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