HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. The nurse is completing the preoperative assessment of a client who is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy under general anesthesia. Which finding warrants notification of the HCP prior to proceeding with the scheduled procedure?
- A. Light yellow coloring of the client's skin and eyes.
- B. The client's blood pressure reading of 184/88 mm Hg.
- C. The client vomits 20 ml of clear yellowish fluid.
- D. The IV insertion site is red, swollen, and leaking IV fluid.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure reading of 184/88 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which can increase the risks associated with surgery. The healthcare provider should be notified to manage the blood pressure before proceeding with the scheduled procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A, light yellow coloring of the client's skin and eyes may indicate jaundice, but it is not an immediate concern for the scheduled procedure; C, vomiting clear yellowish fluid may suggest bile reflux, but it does not pose an immediate risk to the procedure; D, red, swollen, and leaking IV insertion site indicates a local complication that requires intervention but does not have a direct impact on proceeding with the scheduled surgery.
2. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
- B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.
3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
- B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
- C. Transfer the client to the ICU.
- D. Assess the client's core temperature.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.
4. When speaking to young parents, the nurse states that lead poisoning is one of the most common preventable health problems affecting children. What condition occurs when the level of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone?
- A. Malnutrition
- B. Anemia
- C. Bone pain
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. When the amount of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone, it leads to anemia. Malnutrition (Choice A) is a state of inadequate nutrition, not directly related to lead poisoning. Bone pain (Choice C) is a symptom of lead poisoning due to its effects on bones but not directly related to lead ingestion exceeding absorption. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a direct consequence of lead ingestion exceeding absorption by bones.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?
- A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
- B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
- C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
- D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.
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