Nursing Elites

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

• A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
• B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
• C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
• D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

2. Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?

• A. Positive Kernig sign, diarrhea, and headache
• B. Negative Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and irritability
• C. Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia
• D. Negative Kernig sign, vomiting, and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.

3. When caring for a client with nephrotic syndrome, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Vital signs
• C. Level of consciousness
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight is the most important assessment to monitor fluid balance in clients with nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, excessive protein loss leads to fluid retention and edema. Monitoring daily weight allows the nurse to assess fluid status accurately. Vital signs, while important, may not directly reflect fluid balance changes in nephrotic syndrome. Level of consciousness and bowel sounds are not typically the primary assessments for monitoring fluid balance in clients with nephrotic syndrome.

4. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who has a chest tube due to hemothorax?

• A. Keep the arm and shoulder of the affected side immobile at all times.
• B. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and cough at frequent intervals.
• C. Maintain the pleura vac slightly above the chest level.
• D. Ensure there is no fluctuation in the water seal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is vital for a client with a chest tube due to hemothorax as it helps prevent atelectasis and promotes lung expansion. Keeping the arm and shoulder immobile (Choice A) is not necessary for chest tube management. Maintaining the pleura vac slightly above the chest level (Choice C) is incorrect as the pleura vac should be kept below the chest level to facilitate drainage. Ensuring no fluctuation in the water seal (Choice D) is important, but it is not the priority intervention when compared to promoting lung expansion through deep breathing and coughing.

5. While performing a skin assessment on an older adult, the nurse notices a number of irregular round brownish-colored lesions on the client’s hands, arms, and face. On palpation, they are flat and slightly rough to the touch. Based on this assessment finding, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Apply a topical antibiotic ointment.
• B. Monitor the lesions for changes.
• C. Advise the client to use sunscreen.
• D. Refer the client for a skin lesion biopsy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Referral for a skin biopsy is necessary to rule out potential malignancy of irregular skin lesions. Applying a topical antibiotic ointment (Choice A) is not indicated for irregular pigmented lesions. Monitoring the lesions for changes (Choice B) may delay appropriate intervention if malignancy is present. Advising the client to use sunscreen (Choice C) is important for sun protection but is not the priority when irregular lesions are present.

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