Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for an elderly female client who tells the nurse, 'When I sneeze, I wet my pants.' After discussing the client's complaint with the charge nurse, the nurse plans to reinforce teaching about the importance of Kegel exercises. What muscles are involved in these exercises?

• A. Pectoral muscles
• B. Buttock muscles
• C. Abdominal muscles
• D. Pelvic floor muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Kegel exercises involve the pelvic floor muscles. These muscles help strengthen the muscles controlling urination, potentially reducing symptoms of urinary incontinence. Pectoral muscles (Choice A), responsible for movement of the shoulders and arms, are not involved in Kegel exercises. Buttock muscles (Choice B) are primarily responsible for hip movement and stability, not related to Kegel exercises. Abdominal muscles (Choice C) support the core and trunk but are not the focus of Kegel exercises.

2. An older male client with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to an extended care facility. Which intervention should the PN include in the client's nursing care plan?

• A. Plan to have the same nursing staff provide care for the client whenever possible
• B. Describe the activities available to residents and encourage him to choose the ones he prefers
• C. Encourage the client to remain on the unit for three weeks until he is oriented to his new surroundings
• D. Introduce the client to the nursing staff and other residents as soon as possible

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease in an extended care facility is to plan to have the same nursing staff provide care whenever possible. Consistency in caregivers helps reduce confusion and anxiety in clients with Alzheimer’s disease, promoting a stable and supportive environment for the client. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on activities rather than the consistency of caregivers. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests isolating the client, which can lead to increased confusion and distress. Choice D is incorrect as introducing the client to new people immediately can be overwhelming and may exacerbate their symptoms.

3. What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?

• A. You are wearing an ID bracelet that will let the medical team know which eye to work on.
• B. When you are taken to the surgery area, the medical staff will confirm which eye needs the surgery.
• C. The surgeon will mark the correct eye before the cataract surgery based on your medical records.
• D. You will wear an ID bracelet, and the nurse will verify the eye scheduled for surgery by comparing it with your records and marking it with a permanent marker.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient’s concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.

4. What information should the PN collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?

• A. Name of the funeral home to contact
• B. Client's wishes regarding organ donation
• C. Contact information for the client's next of kin
• D. Health care proxy information

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation is crucial as it aligns with end-of-life care preferences and ensures that the client's decisions are respected. While obtaining the name of a funeral home (Choice A) may be necessary, it is not typically part of the initial admission assessment. Contact information for the client's next of kin (Choice C) is important for communication but may not be directly related to the client's immediate end-of-life wishes. Health care proxy information (Choice D) is vital for decision-making if the client becomes incapacitated but may not be the primary focus during the initial admission assessment.

5. What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?

• A. Down syndrome
• B. Fragile X syndrome
• C. Prader-Willi syndrome
• D. Turner syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.

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