Nursing Elites

1. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

2. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.

3. A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn for the first time after delivery reports nipple pain when the baby sucks. Based on this client problem, which action should the PN take?

• A. Ensure that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth
• B. Have the mother reposition the infant from the cradle to the football hold
• C. Check for engorgement and assess the nipples for cracks or lesions
• D. Apply a warm compress to the breast for 10 minutes before each feeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper latch, including all the areolar tissue in the infant's mouth, is essential to prevent nipple pain and ensure effective breastfeeding. Option A is correct because ensuring that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth helps achieve a good latch, reducing nipple pain. Option B is incorrect as repositioning the infant may not address the root cause of the pain related to latch issues. Option C is incorrect because while checking for engorgement and nipple issues is important, it does not directly address the latch concern causing the pain. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers; a warm compress can help with pain associated with engorgement, but it does not address latch issues.

4. A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Encourage deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer.
• B. Administer antipyretic medication as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client’s fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.

5. What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?

• A. Down syndrome
• B. Fragile X syndrome
• C. Prader-Willi syndrome
• D. Turner syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.

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