HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
2. The UAP reports to the PN that an assigned client experiences SOB when the bed is lowered for bathing. Which action should the PN implement?
- A. Obtain further data about the client's activity intolerance to position changes
- B. Advise the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath
- C. Direct the UAP to obtain vital signs and a pulse oximetry reading
- D. Notify the healthcare provider about the client's episode of SOB
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Advising the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath is the most appropriate action to take. This helps manage the shortness of breath (SOB) experienced by the client and prevents further stress. By giving the client time to rest, the PN ensures the client's comfort and safety during care activities. The other options are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario: obtaining further data about activity intolerance (choice A) may delay addressing the current issue, obtaining vital signs and pulse oximetry (choice C) is important but not as immediate as allowing the client to rest, and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is premature before trying a simple intervention like allowing the client to rest.
3. During a fire incident in a long-term care facility's kitchen, which task is most crucial for the PN to perform instead of delegating to UAP?
- A. Close the doors to all residents' rooms
- B. Offer comfort and reassurance to each resident
- C. Identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident
- D. Provide blankets to each resident for use during evacuation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a fire emergency, the most critical task for the PN is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task ensures a safe and organized evacuation plan, which is essential for everyone's safety. Delegating this responsibility to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) may lead to errors or delays in the evacuation process. Closing doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but is not as urgent as planning the evacuation. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, it should not take precedence over ensuring a safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is helpful but does not directly address the primary concern of safely evacuating residents.
4. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
5. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:
- A. Is experiencing an exacerbation of goiter
- B. Is experiencing an acute asthmatic attack
- C. Has aspirated a piece of meat
- D. Has severe laryngotracheitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
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