HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
2. A client who is post-operative from a carotid endarterectomy is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
- B. Assess the client’s airway and respiratory status.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed.
- D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client’s airway and respiratory status (Choice B). Difficulty swallowing after carotid endarterectomy could indicate swelling or nerve damage affecting swallowing, which may compromise the airway. Assessing the airway and respiratory status is crucial to ensure the client's ability to breathe. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not the priority as the primary concern is airway patency. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) can help with swallowing difficulties but does not address the immediate risk to the airway. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is contraindicated if there is a risk of compromised airway due to swallowing difficulties.
3. The PN is caring for a laboring client whose last sterile vaginal examination revealed the cervix was 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part was at 0 station. An hour later, the client tells the PN that she wants to go to the bathroom. Which action is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Review the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern
- B. Check the perineum for an increase in bloody show
- C. Request a nurse to check the client's cervical dilation
- D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The sudden urge to use the bathroom may indicate that labor is progressing quickly. Checking the cervical dilation will help determine if the client is in the transition phase of labor and if it is appropriate to allow her to get up. Reviewing the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern (Choice A) is important but not the most immediate action in this scenario. Checking the perineum for an increase in bloody show (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as assessing cervical dilation. Palpating the client's bladder for distention (Choice D) is not the priority when the client wants to go to the bathroom during labor.
4. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?
- A. Calcium
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.
5. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
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