a post operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient controlled analgesia pca what is the primary advantage o
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

2. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics that the nurse should monitor for in patients?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of opioid analgesics due to the slowing of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased peristalsis and increased water absorption, resulting in constipation. Monitoring for constipation is crucial to prevent discomfort or complications like bowel obstruction. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect of opioid analgesics. Hypertension (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not typically associated with opioid use.

3. Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.

4. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

5. Which disorder is characterized by demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is the correct answer. It is an autoimmune disease that specifically targets and damages the myelin sheath surrounding neurons in the central nervous system. This demyelination disrupts the transmission of nerve signals and leads to a variety of neurological symptoms. Parkinson's disease (Choice B), Alzheimer's disease (Choice C), and Huntington's disease (Choice D) are neurodegenerative disorders that do not primarily involve demyelination of neurons in the CNS. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing neurons, Alzheimer's disease by the formation of plaques and tangles in the brain, and Huntington's disease by a genetic mutation affecting nerve cells.

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