Nursing Elites

1. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

2. A client who is post-operative from a carotid endarterectomy is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
• B. Assess the client’s airway and respiratory status.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed.
• D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client’s airway and respiratory status (Choice B). Difficulty swallowing after carotid endarterectomy could indicate swelling or nerve damage affecting swallowing, which may compromise the airway. Assessing the airway and respiratory status is crucial to ensure the client's ability to breathe. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not the priority as the primary concern is airway patency. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) can help with swallowing difficulties but does not address the immediate risk to the airway. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is contraindicated if there is a risk of compromised airway due to swallowing difficulties.

3. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Ask family members to remain with the client in the evenings from 5 to 8 pm
• B. Administer a prescribed PRN benzodiazepine at the onset of a confused state
• C. Ensure that the client is assigned to a room close to the nurses' station
• D. Postpone administration of nighttime medications until after 11 pm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.

4. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Gastric residual volumes
• C. Bowel sounds
• D. Urinary and stool output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

5. After spinal fusion surgery, a client reports numbness and tingling in the legs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities.
• B. Reposition the client to relieve pressure on the spine.
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After spinal fusion surgery, numbness and tingling in the legs may indicate nerve compression or damage. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities. This assessment will help determine the cause and severity of the symptoms, guiding further interventions. Repositioning the client may be necessary for comfort, but assessing neurovascular status is the initial step. Administering pain medication should only follow the assessment to address any discomfort. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action unless there are emergent signs requiring urgent intervention.

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